Subject: MARK 16:16: Was it perverted? |
Bible Note: Greetings AO! If the verses were 'removed', it would have to be on the basis of the best texts available, not on the basis of doctrine. Textual decisions are made all the day, by every translation. The KJV made textual decisions concerning what to include and what not to include. Were they wrong or right? :-) Since various manuscripts list a total of four different endings for Mark, should we include them all? If we don't, are we 'removing' something from the Word of God? As far as my personal approach is concerned, these verses are so questionable that I would not base any doctrine upon them that I could not find elsewhere in Scripture. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |