Bible Question:
How does typology fit within the realm of eisegesis and exogesis. I hear some forum members speak of eisegesis as something not be be done, but where is the line to be drawn? In Genesis 22, for example, it seems perfectly obvious that there is the comparison to be drawn between Abraham and our Heavenly Father, and between Isaac and Jesus, yet nothing in the text actually says this. If I understand the term correctly, eisegesis is to read into the text something that is not actually written. But isn't this sometimes correct to do? What do you think? |
Bible Answer: Greetings Mark! I was waiting to see if anyone else wanted to take a stab at your question. My thought is this: Drawing parallels and comparisions is not eisegesis as long as one does not go beyond what can be demonstrated in Scripture. For instance, using your example of Abraham and Isaac. 1) Just as God provided a sacrifice for Isaac, so also He provided a sacrifice for us. This is clear in Scripture. 2) Just as it was always God's intention to provide a sacrifice for Isaac, it was always His intention to provide a sacrifice for us. This is clear from Scripture. If my comparisons cease to be supported by Scritpure, then I am engaging in 'eisgesis'. p.s. - I generally avoid the word 'type' unless Scripture calls something a 'type'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 2 | Author | ||
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mark d seyler | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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andrewjustin | ||
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dltlshines | ||
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dltlshines | ||
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ngkh | ||
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cherish | ||
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Pam D | ||
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bmccoun | ||
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trewa | ||
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Husker |