Bible Question: Heb. 2:9, "because he suffered death," Re: 'suffered' - Do you consider then that his 'one sacrifice' was any sort of a "punishment" for any sin of his own? (He was sinless!) Or was it a "punishment" for the sins of many people", Heb. 9:28? ...the substitution idea versus the idea of grace has me confused, for the Scriptures seem to say that the Lord had to allow himself to die in order to annul the power of sin which is inherent in the flesh of mankind... |
Bible Answer: Hi, REVbuff; You're right; Jesus was sinless. If he weren't, he would simply be suffering the punishment for his own sins and so could not be the substitutionary sacrifice for ours. God reveals his grace (his unmerited love for us) by allowing us to exchange our own sin for Jesus' righteousness. When we do that (through faith in Jesus), we get his sinlessness before God and he gets our punishment: "the punishment that brought us peace was upon him, and by his wounds we are healed." (Isaiah 53:5) Hope this is helpful. Peace and grace, Steve |
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