Subject: Revelation in the Gospels? |
Bible Note: Greetings Jim! I understand what you are trying to say in this post, I just don't agree with the definition you quote from Dr. Boyd. His definiton of 'literal' is a straw-man philosophically speaking. No one that I know of, who believes in the inerrancy of the Scriptures, believes that 'literal' rules out the use of literary genres. Could God have used symbolism in Genesis to recount the creation account? Of course He could have! The question is, "Did He?" The answer that most give is "No!" The reason is simply that Gen. 1 and 2, doesn't present itself as symbolism. It says on this day, God created this. On this day, God created that. The important point is that the definition of 'literal' that you seem to be using is not accurate. This is what has caused so much stir on this thread. You seem to be saying that some passages use literary devices. If this is what you mean, most of us on the forum would agree with you. If you mean that because literary devices are used then Scripture is in error, most of us on the forum would disagree with you. Hopefully, you can clarify your position! Thanks, Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |