Bible Question: In Isaiah 7:14, the definite article, "ha," precedes "alma". Other translations translate "the virgin," but the Updated NASB translates, "a virgin." I would value knowing why translating "a virgin" occurred, not "the virgin." Thank you. |
Bible Answer: Hi, Joseph... Why questions are always difficult. When, where, who, what, how, etc. can be answered definitively. I don't know of a source citing, verse by verse, why the translators chose one wording over another. You can see some discussion on the net bible. I did notice that the ASV, KJV, and others used the phrase "a virgin." Even John Wycliffe and, later, Martin Luther did as well (in German). We have a couple of readers of Greek on the forum, but I don't know of any Hebrew language scholars who participate. In Him, Doc |