Subject: promises to the jews valid for christian |
Bible Note: Thank you Doc, I hope I can call you Doc. The Matthew 5:17-20 scripture you just referred to was addressed to the Jews; the law was given only to the Jews and never to the gentiles. How then could it be used to judge the gentiles? That is why Jesus Christ had to come into the equation. Kindly note that the gentiles were brought into the Kingdom of God by the blood of Jesus (Ephesians 2:12-14 KJV: "That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;" If you read further on you will learn that we are no longer under the law. I am not preaching anything against the Bible and nothing at all “Antinomian licentiousness and of Pharisaical self-righteousness” – I wish I knew what you meant… sometimes this theology jargon doesn’t really communicate much. As for the other guys, Scyalla and Charybdis; personally I have never heard of them. However, I more than agree with you that we need the Holy Spirit to best understand the Bible – at least that is what I think you were suggesting. Stay blessed, King T! |