Subject: Inspired or not? |
Bible Note: Dear Doc. I just read your personal profile and also the website you suggested for those who wanted to learn what it meant to follow Christ. The website accuratly expresses my belief, also, and I look forward to meeting you in heaven. :) In the meantime...I've also looked over some of your posts. Whew! I would love to discuss some of the problems I'm having, and maybe get some of my questions answered, but the terms you use reflect an education on these matters that I do not possess. I guarantee you that I cannot articulate my confusion regarding O.T. laws and ordinances as well as you can articulate things, nonetheless, I would LOVE to get your opinion on some of these things, please. I too believe that the cannon of scripture is closed. (Good thing. Because right now, I've got enough problems with what we already have! :) But, I'm sure you can help. You say that the cannon of scripture is closed (I agree), and that it was a progressive revelation (I agree). I did NOT mean to imply that the "meaning" of scripture changes depending on the dispensation you live in. Sin (going my own way) is sin no matter which dispensation you live in. But what constitutes sin in one dispensation, does not necessarily constitute sin in another. This is NOT an argument against the inspiration of scripture. I simply WISH I had the answer, for instance, for why God told the Israelites that eating fish without scales or fins was an abomination (Lev. 11:10), the same as the sin of homosexuality or the sin of witchcraft. Today, in our culture, eating shellfish is not a sin. Why then and not now? If you haven't looked at the website in my very first post, please do so. I totally understand the fact that Jesus Christ is our substitute, PRAISE GOD!, so I'm not looking for an explanation on why the animal sacrifices are no longer necessary. But what really confuses me even more than the shellfish issue or the hair trimming around the temples (Lev. 19:27), is the revelation given to Moses about treatment of slaves. I work with African American people who I dearly love who are not believers. The Bible is a frequent subject of conversation. Because of their history, what would you say to them when they see God's rules regarding slaves and condoning the treatment of slaves as "less than" and as "property." (Ex. 21:18-21, 28-32) A man can beat his slave, and as long as the slave doesn't die, than there is no consequence, because the slave is his property. Another one is Lev. 18:18 where it says "Thou shalt love thy neighbor as theyself," but then is immediately followed with scripture (Lev. 18:20) that says that if a man lies with a slave woman who is betrothed to someone else, the slave woman will get scourged, she will not die, because she was not free (implied, she did not have a choice in the matter), but the man shall only bring an offering and then he shall be forgiven. (Lev. 19:20) This is different treatment than with the sexual violation of a free woman (Duet. 22:25-27). Also, the value of a slave's life was less than the value of a free person's life. See Ex. 21-:28-32. I desperately wish I had an answer. If I am not interpreting scripture correctly, I trust you will tell me. More importantly, what would you tell them? Because this subject has and will continue to come up, and I don't have an answer. I look forward to your help with this. Thank you and God Bless You. - Trigger |