Bible Question (short): Psalm 23, why the change between He/Thee |
Question (full): I want to ask a question regarding changing the address from "thee" to "he". For example, look at Psalm 23, or Micah 7:18-20. Is it possible that "Thee" refers to God the Father and "He" to Jesus? I believe in the inerrant Word of God. I think that every word matters, taking into account possible translation errors or inadvertant colorings of meaning due to translation. Sometimes if one carefully reads Scripture, instead of just zipping by, one can make big discoveries. I have read exlanations of the Thee/He (like in Psalm 23 the explanation is that at the end of the Psalm, David is just getting more personal) and they just don't have the ring of truth to me. Has anybody else studied this? |
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Questions and/or Subjects for OT general | Author | ||
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billyt5123 | ||
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LIVERIGHT | ||
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johnny-b | ||
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egr | ||
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DocTrinsograce | ||
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ALAN LEE | ||
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swerv | ||
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candice | ||
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mitchellcraft | ||
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george1 | ||
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