Bible Question: There was a question asked in Bible study regarding the "sons of God" in Genesis 6:2 and Job 1:6. Our assignment was to research these passages. The question is who is does the "sons of God" refer to? and is the same reference made in both passages. Please elaborate. |
Bible Answer: Dear n2deep, All prasie and glory and honor to God our Father and to Jesus Christ who gave Himself for our sins! Below is a posting by Makarios form 2/20/02 that contains Scripure references. It was an answer to this very same question (The tallest man in the world had a mother and a father! Even Goliath had a place of origin (Gath) and fathered offspring. In no way are the Nephilim the product of a union between fallen angels and human women. A much better question to ask is: How do you come to the conclusion that fallen angels can procreate with women since demons are described as 'evil SPIRITS' (Matthew 8:16, 12:43-45, Mark 6:7), and angels of ANY order are not given in marriage to each other or to any created thing? (Matthew 22:30, Mark 12:25, Luke 20:35) Demons (or fallen angels) can possess an individual, but they themselves cannot procreate with another individual. Also, if demons (or fallen angels) could ever procreate with women, then how do you justify such an action, since demons are the adversaries of men? (Matthew 12:45) - Makarios) In His name, Cyclist I will bless the Lord at all times, His praise shall continually be in my mouth! |