Subject: Pre update NASB |
Bible Note: Greetings Retxar! I'll let Hank speak to the English question! :-) Greek pronouns must match their antecedents in person, gender, and number. So, you are correct about you question in 1 Cor. 12:21. While the pronoun is the same in both cases, the form is different in both cases because the number of the antecedents is different. One is singular, and one is plural. Therefore, the first pronoun is singular and the second is plural. However, there is not a different word in Greek for thee/thou/you. The same word is used, but it was simply translated differently when the KJV was translated. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |