Subject: Is speaking in tongues for today? |
Bible Note: Dear John: Did I not provide scripture with my answer that bore out what you asked? Didn't you ask, "How does God speak to you." Is that not the context of the answer I gave you? And did I not supply 1 Kings 19:11-13? Now as far as the thing I previously told you, "That God's answer to me is that He will not glorify man but will honor the humble in spirit who seek to glorify Him." If you need scripture to support this, I am glad to supply it. Try looking at Romans 15:6, "That ye may with one mind and one mouth glorify God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." And I can cite many more verses that proves that it is all about glorifying God not man. If you think that is prideful -- well, I guess you misunderstand me. But you asked my forgiveness because you said so. Of course, I forgive you. What surprises me most is that people who believe in this broad penetacostal form of speaking in tongues being widely manifested today -- they don't require any scripture to prove the interpretations of the tongues they say they speak and hear. But if someone with discernment speaks to them contrary to their self delusions these same people condemn them first -- and then ask for the scripture to prove it. And usually do not listen or concern themselves with the answer the man of discernment has. But then no matter what answer I gave you ... you were attempting to lay a trap for me, wern't you? But can I ask you a question? If God does not talk to me and I am prideful for thinking that He does? How can He talk through those of you who say He speaks through them in tongues? And when you do speak in tongues? Why is it usually not scriptural? |