Subject: What about those who never heard of JC ? |
Bible Note: Why am I having to repeat myself yet again? God intentionally allows human beings to come into existence knowing full well that He will not save them. Is that clear enough for you? Because it certainly is biblical. It is, in my opinion, an error to use the term "create" in the biblical sense to apply to individual human beings. The creation act of God, in the biblical sense, took place during the six creation days of Genesis 1. Everything God created was good. Then God rested on the seventh day, signifying that the act of biblical creation was over. Therefore, although God decrees, allows, and is directly involved in the birth of new human beings, they are not "created" in the same sense that Adam was created. Therefore, I specifically disagree with points 2 (because you hold that God is still "creating" men), 3 (because God does indeed will the suffering of people, including His children -- Philippians 1:29; 2 Timothy 3:12), 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 as being speculative and unbiblical. While I agree to the truth of 10 and 11, Romans 9:15 in its context unquestionably refutes your argument in points 2-9 rather than supports it. And I did notice that you changed the subject on my pointing out the lack of necessity of Christ's atonement under your scheme. If salvation can be found anywhere else (which makes Peter a liar -- Acts 4:12), then Christ's incarnation, life, death, and resurrection are completely irrelevant. And, you are sinning by defining what God's goodness "must" be. Why don't you let Scripture shape your worldview rather than trying to twist verses to fit yours? 'On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, "Why did you make me like this," will it?' --Romans 9:20 --Joe! |