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NASB | James 1:1 James, a bond-servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, ¶ To the twelve tribes who are dispersed abroad: Greetings. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | James 1:1 James, a bond-servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve [Hebrew] tribes [scattered abroad among the Gentiles] in the dispersion: Greetings (rejoice)! |
Subject: James instead of Jacob -- WHY? |
Bible Note: James or Jacob? Some Messianic believers have been taught that in the New Testament of the KJV the name James is a deliberately perverted translation of the Greek word that should be translated Jacob. That the Greek word translated James is Iakobos (pronounced ee-ak'-o-bos, Strong's #2385) is a fact and is not being disputed here. My question has to do with WHY it was translated James instead of Jacob in the KJV. Messianic believers are being taught that King James ordered it so translated because of vanity, i.e., so that a book of the Bible would have his name, James. My question is this: can anyone prove or disprove the idea that the book of James was named after or by the order of King James. I.e., that had it not been for the influence or command of King James of England, the name of the book and its human author would have been translated Jacob (as it appears in the Greek manuscripts)? Can anyone cite/quote any reference to prove or disprove the above claim? Any reliable information anyone has to share will be greatly appreciated, but, please, don't just give an answer without including the reason (proof, evidence) for your answer. Grace to you, Kalos |