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NASB | 1 Timothy 3:2 An overseer, then, must be above reproach, the husband of one wife, temperate, prudent, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Timothy 3:2 Now an overseer must be blameless and beyond reproach, the husband of one wife, self-controlled, sensible, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, |
Bible Question:
Thank you my brother I thought I was destined to the abyss by tone some of the responses to my comments. Maybe there is hope for me. Praise the Lord! Here is an answer I would have hoped for. Notice it doesn’t say I’m wrong (therefore my emotions aren’t charged) It presents the writer’s opinions which everyone is entitled to. However I would like to know how the writer came to his opinion. In the passage in question the word husband and wife are both used. These two words are synonymous with marriage. If we are going to eliminate marriage as a requirement how are we getting around this obvious verbal connection? We have to forget what we have been taught or feel on this subject and analyze what is being said. Doesn’t the use of the words ‘husband’ and ‘wife’ force the issue of marriage? How do can we linguistically reduce it down to meaning sexual purity? I think this passage also eliminates any person that has been divorced since again we see the requirement of ‘one’ here. However death and remarriage since I believe the scriptures teach death ends the original marriage contract or vow, would be permissible. |
Bible Answer: Ed, the consensus among wiser men by far than I -- learned, God-fearing men who have devoted their lives to Bible exegesis -- is that this passage in Paul's Timothy letter and in the virtually parallel passage in his Titus letter are to be understood thusly: A man who desires to be an overseer (bishop, elder) should (if he is married) be the husband of one wife (not a polygamist or woman-chaser) and his children (if he has any) should be obedient believers. A man whom his wife divorces because of his marital infidelity would clearly be disqualifed to hold a church office, but a man whose wife commits adultery and a divorce results would just as clearly not be disqualified. And inasmuch as the death of a spouse ends the marriage contract, a widower would not be disqualifed unless he failed to meet the other criteria specified in the passages in question. I don't know any better way to say it. --Hank |