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NASB | Philippians 1:18 What then? Only that in every way, whether in pretense or in truth, Christ is proclaimed; and in this I rejoice. ¶ Yes, and I will rejoice, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Philippians 1:18 What then [does it matter]? So long as in every way, whether in pretense [for self-promotion] or in all honesty [to spread the truth], Christ is being preached; and in this I rejoice. Yes, and I will rejoice [later as well], |
Bible Question: Hi Makarios, Thank you for your response. I am able to rejoice when when I hear people say the name of Jesus out of pretense. I dont get mad when people use it on tv as almost a swear word. I do get mad when people use it for their own glory. I need to better understand what Jesus said to John in Mark 9:38-41. I, also, want to thank you for your response to my question about 2kings ch 19 and Isaiah ch 37. The response was beautifull. In fact, I shared it with my freind who 1st brought the question up to me. One thing though, my resources indicate that Kings was written before Isaiah, so how could the writer of Kings use Isaiah writtings? I hope you can help with this. Thank you again. |
Bible Answer: Greetings Deep Input, "John said to him, "Teacher, we saw someone casting out demons in your name, and we tried to stop him, because he was not following us." But Jesus said, "Do not stop him, for no one who does a mighty work in my name will be able soon afterward to speak evil of me. For the one who is not against us is for us. For truly, I say to you, whoever gives you a cup of water to drink because you belong to Christ will by no means lose his reward." Mark 9:38-41 [ESV] John had seen a man, who was not one of the disciples, using the all-powerful name of Jesus to cast out demons, and he tried to stop him, because he was not part of the intimate band of disciples. But Jesus declared that no man could do a mighty work in His name and be altogether His enemy. So, "he who is not against us is for us." [KJV] Jesus' response is very comparable to what He said in Matthew 10:42 and 25:40. "And whoever gives one of these little ones even a cup of cold water because he is a disciple, truly, I say to you, he will by no means lose his reward." (Matt. 10:42, ESV) The reward of this is realized in Matthew 25:40, when Jesus says, "..'Truly I say to you, to the extent that you did it to one of these brothers of Mine, even the least of them, you did it to Me.'" [NASB] In Luke 9:49-50, we see a parallel passage to Mark 9:38-41. When Jesus says in Luke 9:50, "Do not hinder him; for he who is not against you is for you", He is giving the disciples a test of outward conduct to use for measuring others. In Luke 11:23 and Matthew 12:30, Jesus gives a test of the inward life that is to be applied to oneself. But, in light of Jesus' rebuke in Mark 9:35-37, John's conscience was clearly bothering him about this earlier incident, since it was clear that this unnamed exorcist was not a fraud. He was apparently a true believer in Jesus, but John and the others tried to stop him because he was not openly and officially allied with Jesus as they were. John would later understand that only legitimate tests of another person's ministry are the test of doctrine (1 John 4:1-3; 2 John 7-11) and the test of fruit (1 John 2:4-6,29; 3:4-12; 4:5,20; cf. Matt. 7:16). This man would have passed both tests, but John was inclined to reject him because of his group affiliation. That is the error of sectarianism. (1) This incident with John and the unnamed exorcist in Mark 9:38-41 and the remark of Peter 'what about this man?' in John 21:20-21 clearly show that the disciples were considering and comparing others and their ministries instead of focusing on what they themselves were set out to do. Jesus replies in John 21:22 "If it is my will that he remain until I come, what is that to you? You follow me!" [ESV] As for Kings and Isaiah, the book of Isaiah was written by Isaiah himself around 739-686 B.C. The book of Kings was written between 561-538 B.C... We know that the author of Kings (unknown) used many different sources, and it is possible that both Isaiah and Kings perhaps used the same source in 2 Kings Ch. 19 and Isaiah Ch. 37. But that shoots my theory that the author of Kings used Isaiah completely out of the water! :-) Your brother in Christ, Makarios (1) Some of this material was derived from The MacArthur Study Bible, 1997, Word Publishing, pg. 1533 |
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Tan_Flipper | ||
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deep input | ||
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Makarios | ||
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deep input | ||
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kalos | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Genee |