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NASB | Romans 3:26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 3:26 It was to demonstrate His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the One who justifies those who have faith in Jesus [and rely confidently on Him as Savior]. |
Subject: Who are the just? What is Faith? |
Bible Note: BradK, 1. Is that not the actual process God uses? Is it not God that saves you through Christ? If God doesn't save you, through Christ's finished work on the cross, who did? Eph 2:8 2. Ro 9:30-33 Whose law was it? Why was it called the law of righteousness? Who had the law written? Was it Moses? Was it God? Is God the source of the law? Is it his standards? If not whose standards are they, and why if it is not God, is it called the law of righteousness? Isn't God the source of all righeousness? Then it continues to say righteousness is of faith. Where do you say that righteousness originated, with whom, for what purpose? Was there a plan, or pursuit? If so, of whom was it speaking? It continues to say Israel followed the law of righeousness, but did not attain to the law of righeousness, why was that, and who were they following? Whose law were they following called "the law of righteousness?" Isn't it called God's commandments? Isn't God righteous in your understanding? Isn't the law of righteousness speaking about the law of God himself? Is there a law without God that mankind is to adhere to? I do not find these issues to be novel, perhaps you do, and I take no offence? 3. Please define your meaning of Modalism since there are many levels of meanings. Again It is God Eph 1:7, states In whom (Christ) we have redemption (forgiveness) through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his (God's) grace; How do you read this passage, if not in the manner just stated? The verse itself tells us redemption is the forgiveness of sins, and if words mean anything you know of whom it is speaking? Are you saying God does not have Grace, faith or Love, and those things are not the character and nature of God? Jesus himself said Acts 1:8 you shall receive power AFTER the Holy Ghost comes upon you...isn't Jesus saying the Holy Spirit is the power source, since it doesn't come to pass until after the Holy Ghost comes upon a person? Doesn't words describe before and after, quanity and quality, source and supply, power or the lack thereof? You do not seem a stranger to words and their meaning, except when it comes to scripture. You know that words have more than one meaning in your natural life, and seem not to have any problem expressing the levels of difference without going over board. Yet with scripture you take it and it's like cement, thourghly mixed up and permanently set, all aschew? I definitely think there is total misunderstanding in this discussion. I once heard a description of Christian growth that makes sense. "Christian growth is like natural growth, when you are first born again, you are like a baby, needing care for food, clothes, shelter, totally helpless and somewhat like a baby bird that will open it's mouth and swallow anything that comes close to it. As that person begins to grow in the word of God, they pass through the stages of crawl, toddler, pre-school, kindergarden, adolensence, teen, young adult, adult, growing maturity. That fits what I have seen, and allows the difference of understandings to be without argument, harshness, superiority, or condescending. After all do we not expect different things from different levels of human growth. Aren't we more willing to supply a baby with what they need, even though they are wailing away. Yet if an adult is acting in that manner are we so tolerant? I'm not interested in arguing, it's a useless exercise. I am interested in learning more about my Lord and helping others to understand his love, grace and truth. Yes, you have misunderstood, and I hope this has clarified the issues. Always in Christ, C.S.M. |