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NASB | John 14:14 "If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 14:14 "If you ask Me anything in My name [as My representative], I will do it. |
Bible Question:
Why does the translation of this verse differ from other translations (NKJV) in that Jesus tells us to ask Him in His name, while in others He simply states that we are to ask in His name? It seems to conflict with John 16:23 where He specifically tells His disciples to ask Him nothing (question Him about anything) IN THAT day, but ask His Father in His name. In teaching the Lord's Prayer, Jesus told His disciples to pray to the Father. The mood of the verb ("pray" in Matthew and "say" in Luke) is imperative, implying a command. Is there room in the Greek text to allow the translation of John 14:14 to leave "Me" out of the text as in the KJV? Thank you, InHisLove |
Bible Answer: Greetings InHisLove! Allow me to touch upon your questions. 1) First of all, there is no way to leave out the 'me' in John 14:14. It is quite clearly in the Greek text, and not just implied, as the actual pronoun itself is used. 2) Secondly, there doesn't appear to be any contradiction with John 16:23 for two reasons. a) The word used for 'ask' is not a word that is normally used in reference to prayer (though it can be), but refers more to the asking of questions. b) The 'no longer' asking takes place at a future date, so it does not contradict John 14:14. Even if we understand the word as a reference to prayer, we do not any longer ask Jesus in person. We address our prayers to the Father in His name. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |