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NASB | John 10:34 Jesus answered them, "Has it not been written in your Law, 'I SAID, YOU ARE GODS'? |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 10:34 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I SAID, YOU ARE GODS [human judges representing God, not divine beings]'? [Ps 82:6] |
Bible Question: What does this verse mean? |
Bible Answer: Hi Searching for Truth, I wrote post #47745 in the other thread for this verse. I might just as well express some of my thoughts again. I think that this verse is made difficult by inability to know who is speaking in the quote. It is further made difficult by the choice of bold type by our NASB version. But I go with the NASB for verse 35, "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came..." So the sense of the passage is that if we as mere men can call our rulers "gods" as Asaph does in Psalm 82:1; why would we find fault with Jesus, the Ruler who came amidst us if He says that He is the Son of God? We as men, rulers, gods. Jesus as a Man, Ruler, Son of God Jesus in this passage said that He and the Father were one. Verse 30. That the Father is in Me, and I in the Father. Verse 38. Yet even with that oneness, He emptied Himself and being a Man now claims to be the Son of God. How could they find fault with that? If we say that we are gods, and all of us are sons of the Most High; then Jesus can rightfully claim to be the Son of the Most High. Psalm 82:1, "God takes His stand in His/ own congregation; He judges in the midst of the gods." John 10:36c, "...because I said, 'I am the Son/ of God?'" John 10:33d, "...and because You, being a Man, make Yourself/ out to be God." From the heart, Ray |