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NASB | John 1:31 "I did not recognize Him, but so that He might be manifested to Israel, I came baptizing in water." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:31 "I did not recognize Him [as the Messiah]; but I came baptizing in water so that He would be [publicly] revealed to Israel." |
Bible Question:
When Jesus came to John to be baptized," . . .John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?" Mt 3:14 How could John say this in Matthew and then claim (v 31) to not recognize Him, prior to His baptism and the promised revelatory sign of the Spirit in John 1:33? |
Bible Answer: 'John the Baptist did (Matthew 3:13-14) or did not (John 1:32-33) recognize Jesus before his baptism? '(Category: misunderstood the author's intent) 'John's statement in John 1:33 that he would not have known Jesus except for seeing the Holy Spirit alight on him and remain, can be understood to mean that John would not have known for sure without this definite sign. John was filled with the Holy Spirit from before his birth (Luke 1:15) and we have record of an amazing recognition of Jesus even while John was in his mother's womb. Luke 1:41-44 relates that when Mary visited John's mother, the sound of her greeting prompted John, then still in the womb, to leap in recognition of Mary's presence, as the mother of the Lord. 'From this passage we can also see that John's mother had some knowledge about who Jesus would be. It is very likely that she told John something of this as he was growing up (even though it seems that she died while he was young). 'In the light of this prior knowledge and the witness of the Holy Spirit within John, it is most likely that this sign of the Holy Spirit resting on Jesus was simply a sure confirmation of what he already thought. God removed any doubt so that he could be sure that it was not his imagination or someone else's mistake.' ____________________ http://worthynews.com/apologetics/101-41-45.htm |
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kalos | ||
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Mommapbs |