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NASB | John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:1 In the beginning [before all time] was the Word (Christ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself. [Gen 1:1; Is 9:6] |
Subject: Same old question: man or Man? |
Bible Note: Greetings Ray! Please just call me Tim! :-) In response to your question, let me first translate the verse: Mt. 9:8 - "And after seeing, the crowds were filled with fear and glorifed God, who had given authority such as this to men." If I understand your question correctly, you are basically interested in two parts. 1) The phrase "to men", and 2) The word "such". 1) The word "men" is the Dative, Masculine, Plural of 'antropos'. So, it should be translated as "to men". 2) The word "such" is the Greek word 'toioutos'. It is a pronoun, but in this verse it's antecedent is "authority", not "men". This is definitely the case because a pronoun always has to agree with it's antecedent in case, gender, and number. "Such" is Accusative, Feminine, Singular. The noun "Authority" is also Accusative, Feminine, Singular. Concerning the Interlinear reading, I'm not sure where they possibly got that from. The phrase is literally, "...the God who gave such authority to men." There is no "One" in the passage at all and "such" refers to "authority" not "men". I double checked the other Greek texts just to make sure that there wasn't a variant reading in the TR or the Majority Text, but both have the exact same reading as the UBS text. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |