Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | Luke 4:18 "THE SPIRIT OF THE LORD IS UPON ME, BECAUSE HE ANOINTED ME TO PREACH THE GOSPEL TO THE POOR. HE HAS SENT ME TO PROCLAIM RELEASE TO THE CAPTIVES, AND RECOVERY OF SIGHT TO THE BLIND, TO SET FREE THOSE WHO ARE OPPRESSED, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Luke 4:18 "THE SPIRIT OF THE LORD IS UPON ME (the Messiah), BECAUSE HE HAS ANOINTED ME TO PREACH THE GOOD NEWS TO THE POOR. HE HAS SENT ME TO ANNOUNCE RELEASE (pardon, forgiveness) TO THE CAPTIVES, AND RECOVERY OF SIGHT TO THE BLIND, TO SET FREE THOSE WHO ARE OPPRESSED (downtrodden, bruised, crushed by tragedy), |
Bible Question (short): YAHWEH, JEHOVAH or LORD |
Question (full): Hi, I have been searching for the most accurate Bible to begin studying. Many people have helped in putting me on the right track but I have found what I would class as a major inconsistency, even within the same version of the Bible. I believe that if in either Hebrew or Aramaic, God's name (YHWH) was printed (which it was), it should be copied exactly word for word into the translation. Even scholar's have translated it into Yahweh or even Jehovah so why is this left out of the Bible when it clearly states to use Gods Name. Replacing it with LORD in the NIV and the TNIV disappointed me greatly as there was a very weak explanation as to why and it even stated that it copied the format in the KJV (which is untrue because the KJV has Jehovah included in the text) and it also stated that it may include it in future revisions. However, when looking through different prints of the KJV, some had the word Jehovah in it and others has the word LORD. Can anyone explain to me why this is and if there is a version of the bible that is as close to perfect translation as possible without man's simple interference? |