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NASB | Matthew 5:32 but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 5:32 but I say to you that whoever divorces his wife, except on grounds of sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who has been divorced commits adultery. [Deut 24:1-4; Luke 16:18] |
Bible Question (short): Does the text in 1Tim 3:12 mean what it |
Question (full): I have recently been nominated as a deacon in our church after much self-examination and researching and counselling with others I have accepted. The announcement of the nomination has now been presented to the congregation. One member of the church does not feel that I am eligable based on 1 Tim. 3:12 "Deacons must be husbands of only one wife". His opposition comes from the fact that my wife has been previousely married and divorced. His understanding is that based on Mathew 5:32.... and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. Disqualifies me as an adulterer, therefore I am not the husband of one wife. Our relationship did not break up the previous marriage in fact we did not know each other while she was married before. I myself have not been married prior to this marriage. I became a professing believer after marriage and hold strong to my faith and convictions. QUESTION: Does the text in 1Tim 3:12 mean what it seems to? And that is that I should only have one wife, not more than one. Or is this individual’s assessment accurate. Thank you in advance |