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NASB | Matthew 19:9 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 19:9 "I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery." |
Bible Question:
DocT, I call it Gill’s trash because I think he adds to Scripture, as MJH cites below: By John Gill's Exposition of the entire Bible: Deut 24:1 "because he hath found some uncleanness in her;" "something that he disliked, and was disagreeable to him, and which made their continuance together in the marriage state very uncomfortable; which led him on to be very ill-natured, severe, and CRUEL to her; so that HER LIFE was exposed to danger, or at least become very uneasy; in which case a divorce was permitted, BOTH for the badness of the man's heart, and in favor of the woman, that she might be FREED from such rigorous usage." (CAPS are my additions). To link abuse, cruelty, danger … as grounds for divorce is not in my Bible. I don’t find this in the Bible ... do you? I don’t think I am better than Gill or anyone, but will, even must challenge even pastors, when I see there is error (Acts 17:11). What "obvious denominational bias" do you see? While I consider abuse wrongs, it is not grounds for divorce. Abuse has civil/criminal penalties. One may even say violating Ephesians 5:22-33 as grounds, since this deals directly with the husband and wife. |
Bible Answer: Hi Searcher... Excuse the short response. I will continue to seek clarity here. I am now aware that you are only seeing this *particular* comment by Gill as trash rather than seeing all of Gill's work as trash. That's good, because it would be difficult for us to work through *all* of Gill's work to determine the level of trashiness. So, let me ask a few questions. Deut 24:1 uses the phrase "she find no favour in his eyes" and in verse 3 it uses the phrase "husband hate her." Therefore: 1. Do you see these two phrases to be describing different levels of distaste for the wife? 2. What level of distate for a wife would be required for a man to act in an abusive manner toward his wife? Would prolonging the marriage be an advantage to either of them in this case? 3. What kind of treatment would you expect from each of the husbands in verse 1 and verse 2? Do you suppose it would be benign? 4. Why do you suppose the "bill of divorcement" was given to the woman in particular? Of what value do you think she placed in this document? In other words, what do you think was the purpose of this bill? 5. Where in Scripture are the civil/criminal penalties exacted against a man for harming a wife? Thank you for your patience -- I look forward to your answers as we plumb the trash depths of Gill. In Him, Doc |