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NASB | Daniel 9:26 "Then after the sixty-two weeks the Messiah will be cut off and have nothing, and the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. And its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Daniel 9:26 "Then after the sixty-two weeks [of years] the Anointed One will be cut off [and denied His Messianic kingdom] and have nothing [and no one to defend Him], and the people of the [other] prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. Its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. [Is 53:7-9; Nah 1:8; Matt 24:6-14] |
Bible Question:
It is claimed on wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prophecy_of_Seventy_Weeks) that: (Relating to the King James Version of Daniel 9:25: 'unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks:') The Hebrew text makes explicit that "seven weeks" and "sixty-two weeks" are separate durations. The first referring back to the time from the word to restore till the anointed prince, while the second refers to the time Jerusalem will remain rebuilt. This is how the earliest editions of the King James Version (1611-1785) represent the text. The Masoretic text makes the same meaning explicit through punctuating the verse so there can be no doubt. However, in 1785, an annotated edition appeared which added an explanatory note to the verse suggesting that "a colon should be placed at the end of this sentence", that is after the seven weeks and sixty-two weeks. The motivation for this note was that the prophecy is then "justly allowed to be one of the noblest…in the Old Testament, as it is one of the strongest proofs against the Jews, in favour of Christianity… since it determines the very time Christ was to come into the world, enter into his ministry, and be cut off for the sins of the people." 13 years later in 1798 the suggested emendation moved out of the explanatory note and into the text. Can anyone tell me if this is correct? Thanks, Jan Harris Rochford, Essex, UK |
Bible Answer: jan, I'm struggling to make sense out of what this is saying, but if I understand correctly, it is suggesting that the "messiah" figure here referred to shows up after the 7 weeks rather than after the 62 weeks. If we just look at the next verse it should help dispell this notion. In verse 26 the messiah is then cut off. Did this prince live over the entire span of the 62 weeks, 400 plus years? As far as the 7 weeks and 62 weeks being seperate time periods, I've never seen a translation that does not acknowledge this. I do not see how it makes their case. Hope I haven't missunderstood. In Christ, Beja |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Dan 9:26 | Author | ||
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Thomas8 | ||
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Lemont | ||
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aherbert | ||
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janxharris | ||
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Beja | ||
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Dhaniei Zewditu |