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NASB | Psalm 93:5 Your testimonies are fully confirmed; Holiness befits Your house, O LORD, forevermore. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Psalm 93:5 Your precepts are fully confirmed and completely reliable; Holiness adorns Your house, O LORD, forever. |
Bible Question:
Besides the reference in James 1:13, what other references are there to show that God cannot be tempted to sin? I know in my heart that he can't sin but I want to prove it from scripture. Thanks Dale |
Bible Answer: Hi dalida, For a New Testament reference verse, and for a look at the God/Man, the passage of John 9 came to mind. Here the blind man said that he did not know if Jesus was a sinner or not; but he saw His works and knew that he had received his sight because of Him. The key to understanding whether Jesus was a sinner or not is in understanding verses 16 and 17. When we look at verse 16 it says that there was a division among them. Do you see the division? It says that some of the Pharisees were saying , NKJ, "This Man is not from God, because He does not keep the Sabbath." O.K., so they were saying as in verse 24 that they knew that this Man was a sinner because He does not keep the Sabbath. Verse 16 compared to verse 24 is key here. Now as far as the division among them is concerned; John 9:16b, "But others were saying, "How can a man who is a sinner perform such signs?" They disagreed, and thought that no sinner could do that. O.K.., these other people were saying that a man who was a sinner could not have done this healing miracle of giving the blind man sight. But another thing to consider is verse 32, "Since the beginning of time it has never been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a person born blind." I am saying that even a sinless man could not have healed this blind man who was blind from his birth. I am saying that this verse should read "Man" instead of "man". A study of the NASB and NKJ show that the NKJ has "This Man is not from God"; but both versions have a lower case "How can a man who is a sinner". One of the things that I think interpretor/translators need to do is to be consistent. That is why I have determined to put in my personal copy all the occurances of Man in upper case when talking about the Son of Man. For instance, the NASB reads "This man is not from God, because He..." This to me is inconsistency: in that, man does not agree with He in this sentence. I would put Man in upper case for both occurances in verse 16. Do you see, dalida, that if this is a Man that He is not a sinner? If you recognize His Deity then you know that He is not a sinner. Here is my interpretation for what it is worth. John 9:16, "Therefore some of the Pharisees were saying, "This Man is not from (God), because He does not keep the Sabbath." But others were saying, "How can a **Man who is a sinner perform such signs? And there was a division among them." John 9:24, "So a second time they called the man who had been blind, and said to him, "Give glory to (God); we know this Man is a sinner." He therefore answered, "Whether **He is a sinner, I do not know; one thing I do know, that, whereas I was blind, now I see."" John 9:29, 30, "We know that God has spoken with Moses; but as for this Man, we do not know where (He) is from." The man answered and said to them, "Well, here is an amazing thing, that you do not know where He is from, and yet **He opened my eyes." John 9:37, "Jesus said to him, "You have both seen (Him), and He is the **One who is talking with you." By the way, you know that Jesus was tempted by Satan to sin. But to be our perfect sacrificial Lamb, we have to know that He is the Holy One, the sinless Son of God, and the Son of Man that the blind man worshiped in John 9:38. From the heart, Ray |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Ps 93:5 | Author | ||
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dalida | ||
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jlpangilinan | ||
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Ray |