Psalm

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NASB	Psalm 120:1 In my trouble I cried to the LORD, And He answered me.
AMPLIFIED 2015	Psalm 120:1 In my trouble I cried to the LORD, And He answered me.

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Bible Question: In the original scriptures, is it implied that the troubles were referring to past events? Hence NASB translates this verse as in the past. Whereas NIV expresses it in the present tense. I was told that the NASB rendition is closer to the original text. Any Greek/Hebrew scholar will comment on this? It has deep implications, I think, on whether it refers to past events, or affirming it as a present statement.

Bible Answer: Greetings Wayne!

Keil and Delitzsch say this about Ps. 120:1:

"According to the pointing , the poet appears to base his present petition, which from Psa 120:2 onwards is the substance of the whole Psalm, upon the fact of a previous answering of his prayers. For the petition in Psa 120:2 manifestly arises out of his deplorable situation, which is described in Psa 120:5. Nevertheless there are also other instances in which might have been expected, where the pointing is (Psa 3:5; Jon 2:3), so that consequently may, without any prejudice to the pointing, be taken as a believing expression of the result (cf. the future of the consequence in Job 9:16) of the present cry for help. , according to the original signification, is a form of the definition of a state or condition, as in Psa 3:3; 44:27; Psa 63:8, Jon 2:10, Hos 8:7, and , Psa 18:7, is based upon the customary expression"

(Hebrew words had to be removed form the quote!)

So, it could be either present or past.

Your Brother in Christ,

Tim Moran

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Questions and/or Subjects for Ps 120:1

Author

Is v1 referring to the past or present? (?)

Wayne2005

Greetings Wayne! Keil and Delitzsch s...

Morant61

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Psalm