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NASB | Psalm 104:4 He makes the winds His messengers, Flaming fire His ministers. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Psalm 104:4 Who makes winds His messengers, Flames of fire His ministers. [Heb 1:7] |
Bible Question:
hello brian! that is exactly how i understand ps 104:4. that is where the trouble lies because in heb 1:7 it is made to mean that god made his angels "just" spirits unlike our lord that he begot and calls his son. heb 1:7 is supposed to be a quote of ps 104:4. if the commentary's reading of ps 104:4 is correct, then the writer of hebrews is claiming a license to change its meaning to suit his treatise on angels vs christ. i know this is not so and that there is a logical explanation to this. so, would you know? take care, grace |
Bible Answer: Dear Grace, One must remember that God has Sovereignly tended to the composition and content of His Word. If it is in the Bible, then it is precisely what God intended to be in the Word. The writers of Scripture actually wrote much more than what we have today. For example, there was a third epistle to the Corinthians. It is not in the canon, nor has it even survived from antiquity. Since it isn't in the Bible, even though Paul wrote it, it isn't the inerrant, infallible, sufficient, necessary Word of God. On the other hand, an epistle of James is included in the Scriptures, even in the face of some dispute in the history of the Church over its canonicity. So, if the third epistle to Corinth suddenly surfaced (highly improbable, by the way), what would that mean to us? In terms of God's Word, almost nothing! It would be interesting, perhaps, but it wouldn't make the slightest jot of difference to orthodoxy or orthopraxy no matter what it said. The book of James, on the other hand, are the inerrant, infallible, sufficient, and necessary words of God Himself. God saw to it that the latter was preserved, while the former was not. Consequently, we must choose our words carefully. For example, you wrote regarding this verse in Hebrews, "...the writer of hebrews is claiming a license to change its meaning to suit his treatise..." (sic). It would be taking license if you or I or anyone else did this. However, the fact that it is part of Scripture means it is precisely what God intended to be there. Do you see the distinction? We believe in the verbal plenary inspiration of the Word of God. When we come to a Scripture like this one -- and you have been quite insightful and conscientious in your studies to even notice it! -- our question should be, "What is God trying to say to us in these two passages?" The fact that we see some kind of disconnect is indicative of our lack of understanding or a lack of some piece of information. In other words, we start with the presupposition that the Word is in perfect harmony, working out what we can from there. We want to clearly communicate to others these foundational presuppositions. Providentially, far more learned people than we will ever be have carefully articulated these presuppositions. We can think them through for ourselves! I'd commend you, therefore, to the following two web sites: http://www.bible-researcher.com/chicago1.html http://www.bible-researcher.com/chicago2.html Great reading! In Him, Doc PS Be encouraged! You are doing exceptionally well! Keep on studying! :-) |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Ps 104:4 | Author | ||
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gdh1127 | ||
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Brian#9 | ||
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gdh1127 | ||
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kalos | ||
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Brian#9 | ||
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gdh1127 | ||
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DocTrinsograce |