Subject: U.S.A. in Bible Prophesy? |
Bible Note: Greetings Yoshua! I checked out your first web site. My first question has to do with their theory that that 1260 days refers to 1260 years. The site said: "*Based on the year-day principle, as illustrated in Numbers 14:34 and Ezekiel 4:6, a day in prophecy stands for a literal year in earth time." Yet, neither of the passages referred to have anything to do with prophesy. In both of them, God brings judgement upon Israel for their disobedience. The term of judgement was to be one year for each day of their disobedience. But, nowhere in these two verses does it say that everywhere in prophecy we should understand a day as a reference to a year. Especially since the same time period is also referred to in terms of months (42) and years (3 1/2). The most natural explanation is that the time period described is 3 1/2 years, not 1260 years. What do you think? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |