Bible Question:
Would someone please explain to me why 1 John 2:1 and 1 John 3:6 seem to be contrary to each other? In 1 John 2:1, John states that "if anybody does sin, we have one who speaks to the Father in our defense - Jesus Christ." Then in 1 John 3:6 he states "no one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him." 1 John 2:1 implies we may continue sinning, as all Christians do, and reassures us that we have an advocate and intercessor in our Lord Jesus Christ. Whereas 1 John 3:6 teaches us that we will not continue sinning once we have accepted the Lord and walk with Him. And if and when we do stray and make mistakes He is no longer in us and we have never truly known him. I am fully aware that once we're saved we will still stumble from time to time, but will always be forgiven as taught in 1 John 2:1. So why are these two verses so contrary to each other? |
Bible Answer: Okay, This is a very good question i have been asked before. Lets start with what John 2:1 is talking about. John writes that if anyone sins (which is everyone) we have Jesus to defend us. So if we know God as our personal savior he will defend us just like you would defend your best friend because Jesus is our best friend. In John 2:1 says that no one who lives in Jesus keeps sinning. I interpret this as: no one who lives in Jesus keep comitting the same sin over, and over, and over, and over again, because if these people truly wanted to get rid of their sin they would ask for God to help them and it would be gone, if they wanted it gone in their heart. So they do not contradict each other only because they are talking about two diferent things: John 2:1 talks about natural sin that we ask God to take away from us. John 3:6 talks about repeated sin without asking for Gods help. In Christ Dave anymore questions? send them to david@whatagod.zzn.com |