Bible Question:
Would someone please explain to me why 1 John 2:1 and 1 John 3:6 seem to be contrary to each other? In 1 John 2:1, John states that "if anybody does sin, we have one who speaks to the Father in our defense - Jesus Christ." Then in 1 John 3:6 he states "no one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him." 1 John 2:1 implies we may continue sinning, as all Christians do, and reassures us that we have an advocate and intercessor in our Lord Jesus Christ. Whereas 1 John 3:6 teaches us that we will not continue sinning once we have accepted the Lord and walk with Him. And if and when we do stray and make mistakes He is no longer in us and we have never truly known him. I am fully aware that once we're saved we will still stumble from time to time, but will always be forgiven as taught in 1 John 2:1. So why are these two verses so contrary to each other? |
Bible Answer: Greetings Pgs! Though not everyone will agree, the easiest way to understand these two verses is as follows. 1 John 2:1 uses verbs which are in the Aorist tense. The refer to points of action, or individual acts of sin. All Christians can commit acts of sin, and these acts of sin can be forgiven. However, 1 John 3:6 uses present tense verbs, which refer to continous action. No Christian can continually or habitually live in sin. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |