Subject: Is homosexuality actually forbidden? |
Bible Note: Greetings Dean! Thanks for your response! Allow me to attempt to answer some of your questions. 1) You wrote: " I agree that the Old Testament is clear on the subject. I question whether the prohibitions in Leviticus are still applicable, given the penalty listed, and given how much Levitical law was intended for the Israelites only. That's why I specified prohibitions in the New Testament. " I would agree that we are no longer bound to Levitical law. However, I do believe that where Levitical law touches on moral issues that the morality in question is still binding. Thus, the 10 Commandments are still enforce simply because they are based upon God’s character and nature. I believe the same is true of the prohibition against homosexuality. While the penalty may not be binding, the morality is. 2) You wrote: "Re: 1 Romans... my question here is on the use of the phrases "natural relations" and "unnatural (relations)." Does this mean homosexuality is unnatural, that is not according to nature? Which nature? Human nature? The nature of life? Certainly homosexuality occurs in nature, there are numerous examples of animals engaging in homosexual acts. Of course we are held to a different standard than animals. But if homosexuality is not according to human nature, why do people engage in it? What is meant by "natural relations" in these verses? " This one is actually quite easy. Even though homosexuality may occur in some instances in nature, it is a biological dead end. Thus, it is against nature. It also is against God’s plan for us. We were created to in such a way that it is natural for men and women to engage in sexual intercourse. Romans clearly defines natural relations as relations between a man and a woman. Why do people engage in it? Look at Romans 1! They turned from God and gave themselves over to depravity. 3) You wrote: "Re: 1 Cor 6:9-10... I find a number of questions here. On a not-quite-relevant note, why are male prostitutes singled out? Isn't prostitution a sin regardless of the gender of the prostitute? Why are female prostitutes omitted? I also question why the qualifier "offender" is added ("homosexual offender" as opposed to "homosexual"), when the word "homosexual" is used by itself in other references in this same translation? It seems some difference is indicated, hence the qualifier. What is the difference between a homosexual and a homosexual offender?" Allow me to quote from a commentary concerning your first question: "The list of offenders was similar to that noted earlier (1 Cor. 5:10-11), which no doubt corresponded to problems in Corinth and in other large cities of the day (cf. Eph. 5:3-6). Homosexuality and male prostitution, for example, were especially characteristic of Greco-Roman society. Plato lauded homosexual love in The Symposium (181B). Nero, emperor at the time Paul wrote this letter, was about to marry the boy Sporus (Suetonius, Lives of the Caesars, 6. 28), an incident bizarre only in its formality, since 14 of the first 15 Roman emperors were homosexual or bisexual." Concerning the translation of the word ‘arsenokoites’ as "homosexual offender," the word is only found here and in 1 Tim. 1:10. It simply means "a sodomite." I’m not sure why they choose this particular translation, but the meaning is clear. 4) You wrote: "Re: 1 Tim... Is a homosexual a pervert? Where is the word pervert as it is used here defined, in terms of what is included under the word?" See above for the word used. But yes, I would say a homosexual would be a pervert, along with a host of other sexual sinners. It might be easier to discuss a smaller section. So, if you have any particulars you want to discuss, focus in on them. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |