Bible Question:
Is the intrinsic high christology in john reflective of its milieu and if so what ramifications does this have to the synoptics? Secondly, What was the purpose of such high christolgoy refelcting upon the I Am, Son of God and Son of Man sayings. Any ideas With every best wish and blessing |
Bible Answer: Hi, Matthew... To attribute the nature of the Christology in John to aspects the day and age in which John lived is characteristic of liberal theology. In this forum we affirm a high view Scripture. Each of us who participate in the forum agree to its authority as a part of gaining the privilege to participate. By the authority of Scripture we mean, that "the supreme judge, by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Scripture delivered by the Spirit, into which Scripture so delivered, our faith is finally resolved. (Matthew 22:29, 31, 32; Ephesians 2:20; Acts 28:23)" Consequently, what you have called the "high Christology" of John has no other source than Divine Providence. We do not begin with our assumptions and then search the Word. Rather, the truth of the Word is the basis on which we form our understanding. John, as in His epistles, is affirming the true nature of Jesus Christ as the Second Person of the Trinity. In Him, Doc |