Subject: why is the gospel of John different |
Bible Note: Hello Rowdy; This is just guess work on my part; but from all the sources I've read, all his writtings were written somewhere around the year 90. This would be near the end or after his exile on Patmos where he recieved the vision. In chapter 1 Jesus gives him the command to (Rev 1:19) "Therefore write the things which you have seen, and the things which are, and the things which will take place after these things. All of the references I've read say that this refers to 1:1-19 (have seen), the letters to the churches (which are) and the rest of Rev (will take place). It seems to me that His gospel could fit the discription of what was. The gospel cleary shows Jesus in the same light as John saw Him in the vision. His espistles and the leters to the churches (that are) and the rest of Rev (which is to come). I have not found any source that agree with me so that is why I'm just guessing but it fits. The discription John gives of Jesus in his gosple may indicate a perspective recieved after he received the vision on Patmos. What do you think? |