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Matthew
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Bible Question:
How come, at the very beginning of the New Testament (Matthew 1:1 untill 1:16), Mathew first anounces that Jesus is 'the son of David, the son of Abraham', then goes at great lenghts to show the complete genealogy from Abraham, via David, to Josef? Since Josef had nothing to do with the conception of Jezus, as teached by the belief in the 'immaculate conception', I do not see the point of proving that Josef is connected through family ties with Abraham, and then to end by making the jump in 1:16 that Josef is 'the husband of Mary, by whom Jesus was born, who is called the Messiah'. |
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Bible Answer: Greetings Olivier456! The short answer to your question is that Matthew contains the 'legal' genealogy for Jesus. Joseph was Jesus' legal father, so his genealogy would have been applicable to Jesus in terms of Jesus being an heir of David. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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olivier456 | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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terrib | ||
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sacollins | ||
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divinesoldier22 | ||
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brazos | ||
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aaronmitchum | ||
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Makarios | ||
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dfww65 | ||
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pgs | ||
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LoriC | ||
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NightJay0044 |
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