Bible Question:
What is the difference between Matthew 19:1-12 and Mark 10:1-12 account on divorce? Where does each evangelist place the account within his gospel? What allusions does each evangelist make to people, places, teachings and imagery taken from the Hebrew Scriptures? How does each evangelist use these allusions? (Do they help to lend the authority of the Hebrew Scriptures to what the evangelist teaches about Jesus or does the evangelist cite them in order to reinterpret them in the light of Christian faith?) Are allusions made to customs or ideals of graeco-roman culture? How are they used? Thanks for your help |
Bible Answer: AS i am understanding the first part of your question, i give you what GOD hac shown me about this thus far. The difference comes in Matthew 19:9 and Mark 10:12. According to Jewish custom only the males were permitted to divorce(matt.19:9) So Mark 10:12 reverses the statement for His gentile audience. |
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