Bible Question: Most conservative protestant churchs use parts of Daniel 9:24-27 to support their belief that at some unknown time the saints will be raptured and then a seven year period will set in and the anitchrist will arise. As these text are prophecies about the first coming of Christ, what rule of Bible interpertation allows them to be used to identify the antichrist? And please don't say it is a "dual" prophecy. Because if that is the case then all 350 prophecies in the Bible that reference Christ would there also reference the antichrist, and we know no one wants to go there. |
Bible Answer: Great question Mike! Daniel 9:24-27 speaks of the time between the decree authorizing the rebuilding of Jerusalem (v. 25) and the coming of the Messiah, which was to be 69 weeks or 483 years. The final (70th) 'week' is not mentioned until v. 27, following the prophecy of the destruction of Jerusalem by 'the people of the prince who is to come" (some see this as Titus in A.D. 70, others point to this 'prince' as the antichrist.) It is not clearly referring to the antichrist, that is only an assumption that seems to fit the facts for now. Daniel 11:31 also speaks of this and the 'abomination of desolation'. In no way do I see any reference whatsoever to a rapture here. In fact, this passage (v. 27) could be referring to Messiah instituting the new covenant and putting 'a stop' to the OT sacrificial system, since it clearly speaks of Christ (the Messiah) and His crucifixion in v. 26. But Endtime 'prophesiers' like to use this and other verses to establish future events based on an 'antichrist'. However, in several instances they are bringing meaning to the text that just is not there to begin with. |