Bible Question:
OK I don't want to offend anyone and it didn't say anywhere on here stuff about adult questions, but this is definately an adult question so if u r not an adult preferrably a married adult is who i want to talk to, please disregard this question thank you. To my question, my husband and I are having a discussion regarding oralsex. He believes that it is sodomy and therefore a sin and should not b performed i on the other hand do not agree with him, we have both searched the Bible but can't seem to find an answer to our question. If anyone can answer this, is oral sex sodomy, if it is then is it considered wrong for married couples to engage in oral sex, and if it is not sodomy, is there any sin attached to it. I am of course talking about this happening between a married couple. Thank You |
Bible Answer: I'll attempt to answer your question in general terms first. Where the bible speaks, we are firm and where the bible is silent, we are free to live according to the principles of Godly living. To my knowledge, the bible does not discuss in detail what is allowed and what is prohibited between husband and wife. In principle then... That which expresses passionate love and unbridled joy for both husband and wife, that which promotes spiritual intimacy, that which honors and respects each person, those are the behaviors that glorify God. Sex is His gift to us; we should cherish it. That which expresses selfishness or lust, that which denegrates or objectifies a person, that which injures, that which manipulates, that which does not honor the other person, etc, those are the behaviors that must be avoided. Second, sexual immorality is a sin. It has been suggested the original reason for this is sexual immorality is a form of idolatry, i.e. worshipping false gods or putting something before God. The basis for this suggestion is that in many pagan rituals in biblical times, sexual acts of all kinds, heterosexual, homosexual, bestial or involving children were common as part of the worship. However, the prohibition is not just against doing what pagans did, as if the intent behind the act were the only problem, but rather against the act itself because it is inherently immoral, like murder, etc. It then follows we are not to be sexually immoral so we can remain pure and holy before the Lord, with our bodies as a living sacrifice in faithful obedience. The question then becomes, is oral sex a form of sexual immorality? If one surveys the OT for instances in which sexually impure people are described (Gen19:5, Gen19:30-38, Gen34:1-2, Gen35:22, Gen38:9, Gen38:14-18, Num25:6-14, Judg16:1, 1Sam2:22, 2Sam11:4, 2Sam13:14, 2Sam16:22, Hos 1-2, John 4, John 8:1-11, Luke 7:36-39, 1Cor5:1, Rev2:20), you find the issues are homosexuality, incest, rape, adultery, refusal to father a child by the wife of a dead brother, fornication, sex in the tabernacle and in public, and leading others to sexual immorality. In a few instances, the term "sodomy" has been used to translate the original meaning, which is not described in detail. In other cases, the word "perverted" has been used. The origin of the word "sodomy" has to do with Sodom, a city known for its sexual immorality, especially its aggressive homosexual men. Given all this, I suggest that if there is sin attached to any sexual activity in marriage, it comes from the content of each person's heart, as Jesus taught. Of course, this does not give license to do just anything. I suggest Jesus' summation of the law applies here..."So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets." - Matthew 7:12 |
Up | Down View Branch | ID# 89367 | ||
Questions and/or Subjects for Song of Solomon | Author | ||
|
aaronlaw | ||
|
JCLT | ||
|
angelface | ||
|
ladyappleman | ||
|
dabmci | ||
|
Chiquitita610 | ||
|
cherryappleberry | ||
|
Parable | ||
|
Kandice | ||
|
Jake B | ||
|
Ricardo Della-Ricca |