Bible Question:
I've posted this on a few sites now and still have gotten no response- hope someone out there can help! I am writing an essay for a thought class where we have read about Greek mythology, Roman gods, and now the Bible. This class is taught by a political science professor- I have a feeling he thinks Christianity is a myth. Anyhow, we are discussing the creation story and the fall of man and I had a few questions that may be easier for people with knowledge of how the word "good" compares to the original word in the text. I'll use NIV for my references. * I am assuming that 6 days is a literal 6 days, not evolution, not a figurative 6 days. 1) Does "and it was very good" in Gen. 1:31 actually apply to humans? So many Christians use it that way, but I see it as referring to "all that he has made." Is "all that he has made" referring to day 6 or the entire creation? 2) God does not say that day 2 was good. My professor pointed out that he also does not say the creation of man was good. This why I want to know the answer to my first question ( if "and it was very good" is referring to day 6 or all of creation). Why is day 2 not good? Why is man not good? I am thinking along the lines of the pre-flood earth and how it changes after the flood, so the water is not "good" get because it has another purpose (to destroy mankind then become the water we know today). As far as mankind goes, I was thinking along the lines of man having free will to choose if he is good or not, but I'm not sure. God did not create something imperfect, did he? 3) The fall of man. Eve did not sin, correct? I don't know if the Bible mentions "sin" in the original text until Cain and Able, but I am thinking that Eve's disobedience causes the separation from God which then allows sin to be possible. Can somebody confirm/ help me understand this? Thank you very much! |
Bible Answer: Greetings! I will try to answer your questions! :-) 1) Were Adam and Eve good? I believe that Gen. 1:31 applies to everything mentioned as being created in Genesis 1 since the verses says, "God saw ALL that He had made, and it was very good...". This would explain the stylistic change in the statement. 2) According to the commentary by Keil and Delitzsch, the separation of the waters on day 2 is not completed until day 3, which is way the statement, "And, God saw that it was good" is not found until Gen. 1:10. This phrase covers the events of the 2nd day, and part of the events of the 3rd day. The remainder of the events of the 3rd day are called good in Gen. 1:12. Man was created innocent, not perfect. As you mentioned, Adam and Eve had the ability to disobey God's commands, which they did. But, they were not created sinners. They were created good. 3) While it is true that Gen. 3 does not use the word 'sin' to describe that Eve did, her actions definitely fit the definition of sin as a transgression of God's law. In fact, Rom. 5:14 and 1 Tim. 2:14 both use the word sin to describe the actions of Adam and Eve in the garden. So, sin was a possibility for Adam and Eve, but did not become a reality for them until they choose to disobey God's command. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran 3) |
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Inspire |