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NASB | Genesis 22:5 Abraham said to his young men, "Stay here with the donkey, and I and the lad will go over there; and we will worship and return to you." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Genesis 22:5 Abraham said to his servants, "Settle down and stay here with the donkey; the young man and I will go over there and worship [God], and we will come back to you." [Heb 11:17-19] |
Subject: Gen 22:6How did old Abraham tie his son? |
Bible Note: Greetings Biblebeliever! First of all, you really need to calm down my friend! You don't know me, yet you accuse me of deception and of not being a Christian. :-( What gives you the right to say those things? Secondly, there was no attempt to deceive. You made mention of Isaac being tied down in the KJV. I simply listed all of the other translations of that verse. Further, I was leaving for work, so I didn't have time to list every verse in the chapter. :-) Thirdly, I was familiar with John 3:16 by about 1970. ;-) Though, back then, I was reading the KJV. Finally, before I go into the examples you cite, allow me to ask you a couple of questions. 1) How was the Textus Receptus put together? 2) How many manuscripts were used in putting the text of the TR together? 3) What was the age of the manuscripts used in putting together the text of the TR? 4) What was the theory used in evaluating manuscripts when putting together the text of the TR? Allow me to answer these questions. 1) Just like Greek texts today, the TR used a variety of Greek manuscripts and made textual decisions when those manuscripts disagreed with one another. 2) The TR was based upon 6 primary manuscripts. 3) None of these manuscripts were older than the 12th century. 4) The textual theory used was to count the manuscripts. If 5 manuscripts agreed in a reading, those 5 must be right. Now, why is this relevant to this discussion? Simply this: We now have literally thousands of manuscripts. Why would the TR be the most accurate Greek text, when it was only based upon six manuscripts, all of which were copies almost 1,200 years after the originals? We now have thousands of manuscripts, some of the dating back to only a couple of hundred years after the originals. This is why modern translations disagree with the TR in some places. (By the way, they all agree far more often than not!) For instance, you mention Col. 1:14. Some manuscripts include the phrase 'through his blood' and some don't. Why is it Satanic to choose one over the other? How would you choose? Why wasn't the TR satanic when it choose one reading over another? Textual choices are made all of the time. I may not agree with each and every one, but the modern Greek texts have the advantage of vastly more evidence than did the TR. They also have older manuscripts than did the TR. Now, if you want to carry on a polite discussion about this issue, I would be more than happy to do so. But, I will not tolerate name calling or personal attacks. I have never, ever, filed an abuse report on anyone, but I will if this kind of attitude continues. I have no problem with the KJV. I grew up reading it. Many of the verses I have memorized, I memorized from the KJV. But, none of the translations are right all of the time - and this includes the KJV. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |