Results 6721 - 6740 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
6721 | Ignoring a Decision to Capitalize | Rev 14:16 | Morant61 | 149490 | ||
Greetings Mark! I have heard that objection before, but it never really bothered me. I would have less problem with the command than with identify an angel as 'one like a son of man'. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6722 | Ignoring a Decision to Capitalize | Rev 14:16 | Morant61 | 149503 | ||
Greetings Kalos! I would certainly not be dogmatic on the issue! ;-) However, the phrase 'like a son of man' is exactly the same phrase used of Jesus in Rev. 1:13. It would certainly strike me as being odd if this phrase was then used to describe someone else. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6723 | Ignoring a Decision to Capitalize | Rev 14:16 | Morant61 | 149507 | ||
Greetings Ray! The oldest Greek manuscripts were written in all capitals called 'uncials'. Then, about the beginning of the 9th century, scholars began to use an all lower case style of writing called 'minuscule'. As for Hebrew, there are no lower case letters in Hebrew. They are all capitals. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6724 | Define wine, please? | Rev 17:2 | Morant61 | 204212 | ||
Greetings Thomas! There are 11 words in the Old Testament which are translated "wine." There are 4 words in the New Testament which are translated "wine." Each of the words have slightly different meanings and can refer to the product of the grape in each of it’s various stages. The Strong’s numbers are included for each word. Old Testament Words 1) yayin (03196): This is the most common word in the Old Testament. It is used 140 times. It can refer to either a fermented or unfermented beverage. One example of a fermented beverage would be Gen. 9:21, where Noah became drunk. However, Jer. 40:10 uses this word to refer to the harvest of grapes, which is to be stored. One scholar, Dr. Robert Teachout, estimates that the word is used 71 times to refer to an unfermented juice and 70 times as a fermented beverage. 2) tiyrowsh (08492): This is the second most common word in the Old Testament. It is used 38 times. It always refers to a fresh pressed juice, with one possible exception. 3) shekar (07941): This word is used 23 times in the Old Testament. It seems to always refer to a fermented drink and it only used in two ways. The first is in condemnations and the second is in drink offerings (poured on the offering). 4) yeqeb (03342): This word is used 16 times and always refers to unfermented wine. It usually refers to the presses themselves or the fresh product of the presses. 5) Õashiyshah (0809): This word is used only 4 times. It is always translated by the KJV as a "flagon of wine." However, more modern translations translate it as "a raisin cake." Thus, it would refer to grapes themselves, not a beverage. 6) chamar (02562): This word is only used 6 times in the Old Testament. It is actually an Aramaic word. The context makes it difficult to decide how it is used. It seems to be used in both ways. It’s 2 occurances in Ezra probably refer to unfermented wine, while it’s 4 occurances in Daniel probably refer to fermented. 7) gath (01660): This word is only used 5 times. It always refers to the press itself. 8) mamcak (04469): Only used twice. Seems to always refer to a fermented drink. 9) cobeÕ (05435): Only used three times. Seems to refer to a fermented drink, but one which is soured or diluted. 10) chemer (02561): Only used twice. Always refers to unfermented fresh juice. 11) aciyc (06071): This word is used five times. It seems to refer to an unfermented sweetened or spiced drink, with one possible exception. New Testament Words 1) oinos (3631): This word is used 33 times in the New Testament. It is comparable to ‘yayin’ in that it can refer to either fermented or unfermented wine. The prime example being Mt. 9:17, where the fresh new wine is to be put into a new bottle to keep it from fermenting. 2) gleukos (1098): This word is only used in Acts 2:13. Some have said that since the crowd was accusing them of being drunk that this had to be a fermented wine. However, the crowd was mocking them and the word usually refers to a fresh pressed juice. It could have been that they had a reputation for only drink fresh pressed juice and the crowd was making fun of them for it. 3) paroinos (3943): This word is only used twice and both times in a prohibition against drinking. It most likely refers to a fermented beverage. 4) oinophlugia (3632): This word is only used in 1 Peter 4:3 and refers to an excess of wine that some of engaged in in their past lives as unbelievers. It most likely refers to fermented wine. In the case of Rev. 17:2, the Greek word used is 'oinos'. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6725 | Define wine, please? | Rev 17:2 | Morant61 | 204294 | ||
Greetings Tam! Thanks for the kinds words, but I have the advantage of some excellent resources! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6726 | Define wine, please? | Rev 17:2 | Morant61 | 204363 | ||
Greetings Tam! One reference I found very helpful was from a rather surprising source. It is a book entitled, "Alcohol: The Beloved Enemy", by Jack Van Impe. It not only examines Scripture, but also history. The classic work though is a book entitled, "Bible Wines or Laws of Fermentation and Wines of the Ancients" by William Patton. If I remember correctly, he was part of the early temperance movement. The true value of his work is that he actually digs into the meanings of the words and doesn't just assume that anytime a word is translated 'wine' that it must refer to alcohol. :-) Enjoy! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6727 | Define wine, please? | Rev 17:2 | Morant61 | 204444 | ||
Greetings Tam! Please excuse me if I take some time to reply occasionally. Between my duties as the pastor of a church, I also work full time as a baker, am married, have four children, and four grandchildren. In other words, I can get quite busy at times. :-) Allow me to address your questions separately. 1) Which word for wine does Paul use in 1 Cor. 11? Actually, the word wine does not appear in 1 Cor. 11. He uses two words that make most people assume that he must have been speaking of fermented wine - cup and drunk. Here is where translators have to be very careful, because the translation can deeply influence interpretation. I use the Logos Bible Software many times when I want to study the Greek text. When I clicked on the word 'cup', the program gave the simple definition as 'wine cup'. However, the word only means 'cup'. Sometimes, for instance in Mark 9:41, the word refers to a cup of water. We simply can't be sure what the cup contained since the text does not tell us. Many assume that since the Jews used wine in their passover celebrations that the early Christians must have as well. However, that is only an assumption. :-) 2) Were they getting drunk? Again, we have to be careful of our translations. V. 21 says, "for as you eat, each of you goes ahead without waiting for anybody else. One remains hungry, another gets drunk." (NIV) The translation 'drunk' could be accurate, but the verb could also mean 'satisfied or full'. This would also make sense in the context of the passage and of the verse since the contrast is between one who is hungry and one who is satisfied or filled. Either way, it does not make a lot of difference concerning the meaning of the passage. What ever they were doing was wrong and they were being condemned because of it. 3) Why were they dying? This question can actually be answered from the text itself. 1 Cor. 11:27 Therefore, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord. 28 A man ought to examine himself before he eats of the bread and drinks of the cup. 29 For anyone who eats and drinks without recognizing the body of the Lord eats and drinks judgment on himself. 30 That is why many among you are weak and sick, and a number of you have fallen asleep. 31 But if we judged ourselves, we would not come under judgment. 32 When we are judged by the Lord, we are being disciplined so that we will not be condemned with the world. They were not dying because they were drunk but because they were drinking the cup in an unworthy manner. Paul closes out this passage with a command to eat at home if one is hungry. The sin appears to be that instead of remembering the death of Christ, people were simply stuffing their faces. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6728 | The meaning of Rev.17:10 | Rev 17:10 | Morant61 | 181741 | ||
Greetings Shing! Here is what the Bible Knowledge Commentary says about this verse: ****** 17:9-11. The angel informed John, This calls for a mind with wisdom (cf. 13:18). The truth that is being presented here symbolically requires spiritual insight to be understood, and the difficulty of correct interpretation is illustrated by the various ways it has been interpreted in the history of the church. The angel informed John that the beast’s heads are seven hills on which the woman sits. Many ancient writers, such as Victorinus, who wrote one of the first commentaries on the Book of Revelation, identified the seven hills as Rome, often described as “the city of seven hills.” This identification has led to the conclusion this passage teaches that Rome will be the capital of the coming world empire. Originally Rome included seven small mountains along the Tiber River, and the hills were given the names Palatine, Aventine, Caelian, Equiline, Viminal, Quirimal, and Capitoline. Later, however, the city expanded to include the hill Janiculum and also a hill to the north called Pincian. While Rome is often referred to as having seven hills or mountains, different writers do not necessarily name the same seven mountains. A close study of the passage does not support the conclusion that this refers to the city of Rome. Seiss, for instance, offers extensive evidence that the reference is to rulers rather than to physical mountains (The Apocalypse, pp. 391-94). This is supported by the text which explains, They are also seven kings (lit., “the seven heads are seven kings”). If the mountains represent kings, then obviously they are not literal mountains and refer not to a literal Rome but to persons. This view is also supported by verse 10, Five have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come; but when he does come, he must remain for a little while. John was writing from his point of view in which five prominent kings of the Roman Empire had already come and gone, and one was then on the throne (probably Domitian, who caused the persecution which put John on the island of Patmos). The identity of the seventh king, the one to come after John’s time, is unknown. Verse 11 adds that the final world empire will be headed by an eighth king. . . . The beast who once was, and now is not. . . . belongs to the seven and is going to his destruction. The eighth king is obviously identical to the final world ruler, the man who heads up the final world empire destroyed by Christ at His second coming. One possible explanation of the difference between the seventh and eighth beast is that the seventh beast itself is the Roman Empire marvelously revived in the end time, and the eighth beast is its final ruler. These verses show that in the end time, particularly during the first half of the last seven years, there will be an alliance between the Middle East ruler (the Antichrist) and the apostate world church of that time. This will come to a head, however, at the midpoint of the seven years, when that political power becomes worldwide. ***** I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6729 | What Jesus meant Matt 10:23.16:28 26:64 | Rev 17:10 | Morant61 | 204447 | ||
Greetings RC! You wrote: "Pre Trib has only been taught since its invention in 1830 AD" Now, I do not happen to believe in a pre-tribulation rapture of the church. However, this statement is not historically accurate. Here is a quote from an older post of mine. ****************** These quotes about Margaret McDonald have been thrown around quite abit, but they ignore much historical evidence that has been around for much longer. Here is a post I posted a long time ago about this issue: **************************************** Greetings Kalos! From the reading I have done, it seems that post-tribulationists have tried very hard to make it seem that a pre-tribulational rapture is a recent deveolopment in theology. However, there is evidence dating from between 300-600 a.d. of a pre-tribulational rapture. This evidence is found in a document called "Pseudo-Ephraem's Sermon." Here is a quote which discusses the nature of this document: ******************************************** "The word "Pseudo" (Greek for false) is a prefix attached by scholars to the name of a famous historical person or book of the Bible when one writes using that name. Pseudo-Ephraem claims that his sermon was written by Ephraem of Nisibis (306-73), considered to be the greatest figure in the history of the Syrian church. He was well-known for his poetics, rejection of rationalism, and confrontations with the heresies of Marcion, Mani, and the Arians. As a poet, exegete, and theologian, his style was similar to that of the Jewish midrashic and targumic traditions and he favored a contemplative approach to spirituality. So popular were his works that in the fifth and sixth centuries he was adopted by several Christian communities as a spiritual father and role model. His many works, some of doubtful authenticity, were soon translated from Syriac into Greek, Armenian, and Latin." (http://millennianet.com/atpro4se/ancient.html) ********************************************** The relevant quotation is quoted below: "All the saints and elect of God are gathered together before the tribulation, which is to come, and are taken to the Lord, in order that they may not see at any time the confusion which overwhelms the world because of our sins." -Pseudo-Ephraem (c. 374-627)" The true authorship and the quality of the document are not really that important for this discussion. The important part is that we have a clear pre-tribulational statement dating over 1000 years before Darby or Margaret McDonald. Thus, the belief itself has been around for much longer than 150 years. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6730 | What Jesus meant Matt 10:23.16:28 26:64 | Rev 17:10 | Morant61 | 204464 | ||
Greetings RC! Sorry to hear about the chemo! I know that I haven't heard from you for awhile. We will all keep you in our prayers my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6731 | Who and When? | Rev 17:14 | Morant61 | 46769 | ||
Greetings Mommapbs! I'll leave the 'when' part of the question for someone else, but I will take a stab at the 'who' part of the question. :-) The Greek of Rev. 17:14 seems pretty clear that one group of individuals is mentioned, but described in three ways. The Greek literally says, "...and those with Him called and chosen and faithful." 'Those' is a plural definite article, which is not repeated. Therefore, the three adjectives all are describing one group. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6732 | CAN YOU EXPLAIN 18:23 RE PHARMACIA? | Rev 18:23 | Morant61 | 122451 | ||
Greetings Mwilson38! 'Pharmacia' is a Greek word that refers to the practice of magic, usually involving drugs or potions. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6733 | What is the "straight and narrow gate"? | Rev 19:8 | Morant61 | 124027 | ||
Greetings Country Girl! This was a much better explanation. The easiest way to understand the relationship between faith and works is this: We 'work' because we are saved! Our 'works' do not save us, nor do they keep us saved. What do they do then? They demonstrate our salvation. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6734 | Is this verse a parenthesis in the Mss | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7287 | ||
Greetings Nolan! You are absolutely correct! I checked the Greek text. Not only does the verse exist in the Manuscript, there are absolutely no variant readings associated with the verse at all. Therefore, the parenthesis must be an interpretative tool added by the translators to help make the text more understandable. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6735 | How many resurrections, and where stated | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7301 | ||
Greetings Isabel! The answer to your question about the number of resurrections is found in Rev. 20:5 and Rev. 20:12-13. Rev. 20:5 clearly states that there will be more than one resurrection. Those who are a part of the first resurrection reign with Christ for a thousand years. Rev. 20:12-13 deals with the "rest of the dead", who do not reign with Christ and are subject to the second death. In actuality, there are several resurrections. The "first" of Rev. 20:5 seems to be in relationship to the last resurrection of Rev. 20:12-13, not 'first' in a chronological sense. I say this because the evidence for the following resurrections. a) The resurrection of Christ and the Old Testament saints - 1 Cor. 15:23 and Mt. 27:52-53. b) The resurrection of dead saints and the translation of living saints at 13-18. c) The resurrection of the two witnesses in Rev. 11:3-11. (This may be a subset of the rapture!) There are probably more references, but this is just a quick list that I threw together. Concerning the relationship of multiple resurrections to John 5:28-29, I think that John 5:28-29 is an example of prophetic telescoping. In prophecy, several distant (in time) events are often telescoped together in such a way that they appear as a single event. Thus, John 5:28-29 is concerned with the reality of resurrection and judgement, not necessarily with giving an indepth description of how it occurs. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6736 | verse besides Rev.20:5 that show two res | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7330 | ||
Greetings Isabel! Off of the top of my head, I am not aware of any other verses that specify the amount of time between the two resurrections! However, we do have a very clear statement in Rev. 20:5. Concerning the telescoping of prophecy, the best example is probably Mt. 24. In Mt. 24, Jesus deals with the fall of Jerusalem and events which still have not yet occurred. However, it is very difficult to tell where Mt. 24 stops talking about past events (for us) and future events. So, John 5:25-29 could be an example of telescoping or of specificity. By that last term I mean some Scriptures simply don't deal with every detail of an issue. Some Scriptures are more general in nature. When this occurs, we must allow Scripture to interpret Scripture by pulling other verses in. So Rev. 20:5, would help clarify or explain in greater detail John 5:25-29. Well, I've got to get to bed! Bye for now! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6737 | Who's in 1st and 2nd resurrection? | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 73674 | ||
Greetings Chusarcik! I'm quite sure that no one can give an answer that everyone will agree with, but here is my position on the first and second resurrections. The first resurrection is made up of several stages. a) Christ Himself - 1 Cor. 15:20. b) The Old Testament saints - Mt. 27:52-53. c) The deceased New Testament saints who are raised at the rapture 1 Thess. 4:16. d) Those saints who died after the rapture - Rev. 20:4. According to Rev. 20:6, I believe all believers (regardless of when they are saved) are part of the first resurrection. Therefore, the 'rest of the dead' must refer to those who have died prior to the beginning of the 1,000 year reign, but who did not accept Christ. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6738 | VERSE-5, BUT THE REST O THE DEAD | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 86143 | ||
Greetings Swiggy22! Allow me to begin answering your question by re-posting a post I previously made about the words translated as Hell. Then, I will address your specific question. ************************* Allow me to explain my point, but first let me emphasis that I do believe in an eternal punishment in Hell for the wicked. The only problem is that the KJV (along with several other translations) translates four different words as 'hell'. This leads to much confusion over who is in hell, when, why, ect... Here are the four different words: In Hebrew (Sheol) and in Greek (Hades, Tartarus, and Gehenna). Allow me to briefly describe each term. 1) Sheol: Hebrew only uses one word to describe the state of the dead. This word can simply refer to death or the grave in general or it can refer to the spiritual status of all the dead. Prov. 9:18 says of Sheol - "But little do they know that the dead are there, that her guests are in the depths of the grave." Thus, Sheol is a place where all the dead go. Ps. 9:17 says that Sheol is a place where the wicked go - "The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God." However, even godly Jacob expected to go to Sheol according to Gen. 44:29 - " If you take this one from me too and harm comes to him, you will bring my gray head down to the grave in misery.?" And, Ps. 89:48 affirms that all men will go to Sheol - "What man can live and not see death, or save himself from the power of the grave? Selah" Thus, this Old Testament word is best translated as 'Death' or the 'Grave' and simply refers to the state of all men at death. It does not refer to what we think of as 'Hell' in the sense of an eternal place of conscience punisment. 2) Hades: This is the New Testament equivalent of Sheol. It has much the same meaning as did Sheol with one exception. That exception being that the New Testament fills the meaning out with the passage to which you refered. Thus, we discover in Luke 16:20-31 that there are compartments in Sheol/Hades . There is a place of punishment where the wicked go to await final judgement and there is a paradise side, Abraham's bosom, where the righteous go to await salvation. This paradise side is now empty. After the death of Christ, complete atonement was made for sin and all those who died 'in Christ' went to be with Him in Heaven. Notice that Jesus did not tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in Heaven today, becase Heaven was not available until after the resurrection of Christ. The wicked dead still go to the punishment side of Sheol/Hades and will remain there until the Great White Throne of Judgement. 3) Tartarus: This word is only found once in the Bible. 2 Peter 2:4 desribes it as a place where certain Angels were placed until judgement. Some believe that it may be a lower part of Sheol/Hades. 4) Gehenna: This word describes what we commonly think of as Hell. It is used 12 times in the New Testament and describes a place of punishment, fire, and condemnation. I believe that Gehenna is also refered to in Rev. 20:11-15, where it is called a 'lake of fire'. However, note that this passage teaches that those in Sheol/Hades will be judged and then place into the 'lake of fire'. Thus, no one is actually in Hell right now! *********************** So, in answer to your question, those who die apart from Christ go the Sheol/Hades to await final judgement after the Millenium. Those who die in Christ go, as Paul said, to be with the Lord immediately upon death. At the Judgement, those who are in Sheol/Hades will be resurrected and judged. They will then be cast into the Lake of Fire (which is what we usually think of when we think of Hell). See Rev. 20 Those who are in Christ, will continue to live on with Him in a new Heaven and New Earth. See Rev. 21 and 22. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6739 | Revelation Christ's Millenial Reign | Rev 20:6 | Morant61 | 32546 | ||
Greetings Johanna! If you combine 1 Thess. 4:13-18 and Rev. 20:1-6, it seems pretty clear that all believers, dead and alive, will be raised and return with Christ to rule with Him during the 1000 years. Those referred to in Rev. 20:5 and 20:6 as not being raised are those who are not believers. They will be subject to the second death - what we think of as Hell. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6740 | Why not allow that to begin with? | Rev 20:7 | Morant61 | 46094 | ||
Greetings Runningfaith! I don't think anyone really knows the answer to your question since Scripture never addresses it. However, if I were to make a reasoned guess, I would say that Satan is loosed to allow those born during the millenial reign of Christ to have the opportunity to accept or reject Him - or to put their 'faith' to the test. The Bible Knowledge Commentary says of this verse: ************************* "John was told what would happen at the conclusion of the thousand years. Satan will be released from the Abyss, his prison, and will make a final attempt to induce nations—called Gog and Magog—to come and battle with him against Christ. Satan’s release will produce a worldwide rebellion against the millennial reign of Christ. The armies will be so vast in numbers that they are said to be like the sand on the seashore. Who are these who will follow Satan? Those who survive the Tribulation will enter the Millennium in their natural bodies, and they will bear children and repopulate the earth (Isa. 65:18-25). Under ideal circumstances in which all know about Jesus Christ (cf. Jer. 31:33-34), many will outwardly profess faith in Christ without actually placing faith in Him for salvation. The shallowness of their professions will become apparent when Satan is released. The multitudes who follow Satan are evidently those who have never been born again in the millennial kingdom." ************************* You asked how anyone could reject Christ after seeing all that will have taken place on the earth during that time. But, we have historical evidence of just this exact situation. The nation of Israel rejected God after all that He did during the exodus. The nation of Israel rejected God after seeing the ministry of Jesus in person. There is no end to man's ability to delude himself if he wants to continue in sin and reject the light. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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