Results 6641 - 6660 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
6641 | Theological Terms | Rev 4:11 | Morant61 | 150990 | ||
Greetings Doc! Thanks for the response my friend! I was just curious as to how you approached that issue. I tend to lean toward option 2. But, I am certainly not dogmatic about it since Scripture never tells us. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6642 | What does each Seal represent? | Rev 5:1 | Morant61 | 21042 | ||
Scripture.................................... Greetings Peaches! See my response to Peggy for an overview of the Seals! But I will try to break down the seals below. If in fact, the seals are general jugdements leading up to Daniel's 70th week, they would correspond nicely to Jesus' comments in Mt. 24 about the events leading up to the end times. In fact, they are almost identical. The first seal (Rev. 6:1-2) refers to conquest. Jesus said in Mt. 24:7 that nation would rise up against nation in the time prior to the end times. The second seal (Rev. 6:3-4) refers to war. Jesus said in Mt. 24:6 that there would be wars and rumors of war leading up to the end times. The third seal (Rev. 6:5-6) refers to famine. Jesus said in Mt. 24:7 that there would be famines leading up to the end times. The fourth seal (Rev. 6:7-8) refers to death by plague, famine, and beasts. Again, this sounds like Jesus' words in Mt. 24:7. The fifth seal (Rev. 6:9-11) refers to persecution of Christians. Jesus said in Mt. 24:9 that Christians would be persecuted and put to death. The sixth seal (Rev. 6:12-17) refers to earthquakes and natural disasters. Jesus said in Mt. 24:7 that there would be earthquakes leading up to the end times. The seventh seal (Rev. 8:1-2) refers to the beginning of the seven trumpets. The pattern seems to be that the 7 seals refer to general judgement leading up to the end times. The 7 trumpets seem to refer to more intense judgements during the first half of Daniel's 70th week. And, the 7 bowls seem to refer to the full expression of God's wrath during the last half of Daniel's 70th week. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6643 | How should the word "epi" be translated | Rev 5:10 | Morant61 | 230986 | ||
Greetings Jamie! Greek prepositions can be translated in a number of ways depending upon context, or the case of the preposition. But, each preposition has a basic concept. The basic concept on 'epi' is physical contact. So, either translation would be acceptable, but I would prefer 'on' in the sense that our reign will be physically 'upon' the earth. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6644 | How should the word "epi" be translated | Rev 5:10 | Morant61 | 231024 | ||
Greetings Doc! Great question! Not only do prepositions have a wide variety of possible meanings, but they are often used in combination with other words to produce entirely different meanings. In the case of 'epignosis', the basic meaning of the preposition is 'through' with the resultant meaning of 'full knowledge'. I did some checking in Dana and Mantey's grammar (pp. 106-107). The base meanings of 'epi' are: With the genitive case: upon, on, at, by, before, emphasizing contact. With the locative case: upon, on, at, over, before, emphasizing position. With the accusative case: upon, on, up to, to, over, emphasizing motion or direction. Of course, there is a lot of interpretation involved in deciding which case is being used as the form of all three is the same. There are other examples of 'epi' in combination with other words where the meanings are more exotic. In Matt. 3:7, it is used in the phrase 'coming for baptism'. In Matt. 14:48, it is used in the phrase 'you came out as against a thief'. In Luke 1:59, it is used in the phrase 'after the name of his father'. It is used in Acts 4:21 in the phrase 'on account of the event'. In some instances, it can be translated as 'because'. Finally, in Acts 11:28, it is used in the phrase 'in the time of Claudius'. The main thing to remember with preposition is the base idea. That meaning is near far away in a translation. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6645 | The word "come!" is a call to action? | Rev 6:1 | Morant61 | 90448 | ||
Greetings Dondee! Welcome to the forum! I would agree with you, if the imperative 'see' were actually in the text. There are a few manuscripts which include 'and see', which was the reading of the KJV. But, the evidence is very strong for these words being an addition to the text. Therefore, we simply have the imperative 'come'. It could be addressed to the horsemen, or John, but John is already there. Secondly, v. 4 uses another form of the verb 'come' in regards to one of the horsemen in response to the command. So, I would say that 'come' is a command to the individual horsemen. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6646 | "Stephanos" is "garland", more aptly? | Rev 6:2 | Morant61 | 11747 | ||
Greetings Salko! Yes, 'stephanos' would most likely refer to some kind of garland. Kittel's says the following about the use of crowns in the military: "8. The Army. The Spartans put on crowns before doing battle, perhaps in connection with sacrifice and as a sign of protection. In the Roman army the general wears a crown to purify the troops before battle. The goddess of victory is depicted with a crown, and there are crowns for the victors, whether of grass, oak leaves, or laurel. An ancient Roman custom is to offer prisoners for sale with crowns on; this possibly derives from a Germanic practice of sacrificing prisoners." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6647 | Revelation 6:12 and Acts 2:20 | Rev 6:12 | Morant61 | 46552 | ||
Greetings JohnK! As in most prophecy, there seems to be a near and far fulfillment to the prophecy of Joel. The pouring out of the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost fulfilled part of Joel's prophecy (Acts 2:17-18), but there were parts pertaining to the Second coming of Christ (Acts 2:19-21) which have not yet been fulfilled. Why the delay? Acts 3:19-21 tells us that God is waiting for Israel to repent before He returns. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6648 | Literally 12,000 from each tribe? | Rev 7:4 | Morant61 | 82734 | ||
Greetings RR144! Do you also believe that the 144,000 is composed of 12,000 from each tribe of Israel? If not, why would you take the number literally, but not the listing of 12,000 from each tribe? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6649 | Literally 12,000 from each tribe? | Rev 7:4 | Morant61 | 82803 | ||
Greetings TR144! It is obviously true that 'Israel' can refer to more than just the nation of Israel. However, in no other instance where this is the case, does it break the total number down into a certain number from each tribe. Therefore, what is there in this passage which would lead one to conclude that itis in fact not talking about 144,000 Jews - 12,000 from each tribe? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6650 | People saved during the tribulation | Rev 7:9 | Morant61 | 225427 | ||
Greetings Mossey! This question falls under the category of those that make us wonder what we were originally thinking! :-) I can remember all those who thought that God wasn't at church unless 2 or 3 people were there! Really? The Holy Spirit, as the third Person of the Trinity, is all present. There is no where, an no time, where God is not present. So, certainly, the Holy Spirit will be present during the tribulation. However, His ministry may be different than it is now. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6651 | What would prompt these tears? | Rev 7:17 | Morant61 | 121328 | ||
Greetings Hank! I think the answer to your question is that man is too proud to rest in God's grace. If we have nothing to 'do' with salvation, then what could we boast about? :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6652 | What would prompt these tears? | Rev 7:17 | Morant61 | 121352 | ||
Greetings Rowdy! I will try this one more time my friend, simply because this issue is so important. First of all, in your introductory comment you said: "Tim, Hank, Mammapbs and BradK and anyone else who believes in this philosophy of salavation through Grace only, without works or being fruitful in God's vineyard, please explain to me the following." None of us ever said that a Christian would NOT be fruitful or have 'good works'. We said that we are not SAVED by being fruitful or having 'good works'. James 2 makes it clear that a real Christian WILL have the evidence to back up their claim to faith. Eph. 2:10 makes it clear that works are the result of faith. All we have tried to say over and over again is that we are not saved by works, which is not a philosphy, but the clear statement of Scripture - see Eph. 2:8-9, Gal. 2, and Romans 4. :-) Now, on to your questions. 1) Yes, I have been guaranteed a place in Heaven. But, Scripture also says that those who love Him will obey Him (John 14:15). So, when He says to witness, I witness - not to earn salvation, but because I love Him. When He says to assemble together, I do, - not to earn salvation, but because I love Him. 2) There are three important points that you seemed to have missed in John 15. a) The fruit is not produced by the vine, but by the branch (John 15:4-5). So, how can the fruitfulness of the vine be attributed as something that the branch does or does not do? b) John 15:5b says, "If a man remains in me and I in him, he will bear much fruit; apart from me you can do nothing." This doesn't say that a true branch should bear fruit, or might bear fruit, but that it WILL bear fruit. Why? Because the vine is the source of the fruit, and if we remain in the vine - we cannot help but be fruitful. c) Finally, fruitfulness doesn't make us His disciples, but demonstrates that we ARE His disciples (John 15:8). 3) This question was a little murky, but I refer you to c) above. John 15:8 doesn't say "be fruitful so that you CAN be my disciples." It says, '...bear much fruit, showing yourselves to be my disciples." 4) This point is no problem for me, because I do believe that salvation can be REJECTED. I do not believe that a Christian can ever 'LOSE' his salvation, but it can willfully be given away. There is a difference. The whole concept of 'losing' one's salvation is based upon either earning one's salvation or keeping one's salvation through good works. This is unscrriptural. The one who 'gives' his salvation away, is not lost because of a sin he committed, but because He has rejected the only source of grace (see Heb. 6 and Heb. 10:26-31). 5) No where does Scripture say that believers will be judged at the Great White Throne. Rev. 20:11-15 speaks of the judgement of those who were dead, but all the believers had already been resurrected in Rev. 20:4-6. In fact, v. 6 specifically says that the 'second death' has no power over those who were resurrected. The 'second death' is Hell. So, let's be clear my friend. None of us is claiming that a Christian should not or will have good works and be fruitful. All we are saying is that good works, fruitfulness, faithfulness, or any other thing will not and cannot save us. We are not saved by anything except acceptance of the finished work of Christ on the cross. The fruitfulness, the faithfulness, and the good works are all results of salvation, not a means of salvation. Finally, since every word is important, allow me to ask you one question. If we have to 'do' something to be sure of salvation, how can any of the following verses be true? a) Rom. 5:1 - "Therefore, since we have been justified through faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ," b) 1 Cor. 6:11 - "And that is what some of you were. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God." Both of these verses speak of justification in the past tense. It is something which is already accomplished, not something that we have to hope will be accomplished. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6653 | Rowdy, where is your Scriptural support? | Rev 7:17 | Morant61 | 121362 | ||
Greetings Rowdy! The only problem my friend is that you said 'we'll all be judged'. Luke 19:22 is addressed to one wicked servant, not all people. John 12:48 speaks only of those who reject Christ and do not receive His words, not all people. Where does Scripture speak of all people being judged by His words? In fact, where does it speak of Christians being judged for salvation at the last day? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6654 | Rowdy, where is your Scriptural support? | Rev 7:17 | Morant61 | 121374 | ||
Greetings Rowdy! You gave yourself and out for the OT, but does everything in the New Testament really apply to everyone? Are you commanded to prepare a guest room for the apostle Paul as found in Phil. 22? :-) Verses have context. Some verses apply everyone, and some do not. Some deal with broad principles, while others address very specific individuals and circumstances. So, again, the passage in Luke is a parable dealing with a wicked servant. Plus, he is judged by 'his own' words, not by the word of Christ. The passage in John deals specifically with those who have rejected Christ, not believers! So again I ask, where does it say that Christians will be judged at the last day? :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6655 | Rowdy, where is your Scriptural support? | Rev 7:17 | Morant61 | 121376 | ||
Greetings Rowdy! I forgot an important point! :-) You asked: "Tim, I do hope you're not trying to say that because these don't say exactly say what you want it to say, that this basic guidance doesn't apply to the whole world." The answer is that it doesn't matter what I want it to say. All that matter is what does it actually say! :-) These verses simply don't say what you claim. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6656 | Who has been silenced? | Rev 8:1 | Morant61 | 149286 | ||
Thanks Bows44! It is always nice to be able to put a 'face' to the people with which we interact on the forum. :-) The personal profile allows us to do that more effectively. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6657 | Who has been silenced? | Rev 8:1 | Morant61 | 149289 | ||
Greetings Bows44! We are glad that you stumbled across us! :-) Just click on the Author's link in the list below the notes section. It will take you to their profile. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6658 | What does the word "Wormwood" mean? | Rev 8:11 | Morant61 | 7093 | ||
Greetings Nolan! The word in question is the Greek word 'apsinthos.' It simply means bitter. It is derived from a bitter herb (wormwood)that was used to cure intestinal worms. The word is only found in this verse of the Bible (twice). It is mentioned seven times in the Old Testament where it represents sorrow and bitter judgment (Deut. 29:18; Prov. 5:4; Jer. 9:15; 23:15; Lam. 3:15, 19; Amos 5:7). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6659 | "Two witnesses." When? Who? | Rev 11:3 | Morant61 | 54788 | ||
Greetings Stokeyhk! There are three distinct periods mentioned in Dan. 9:24-27. 1) Seven 'sevens' 2) Sixty-two 'sevens' 3) One 'seven' The first grouping of sevens refered to the time it would take from the order to rebuild the temple until it was actually completed. Many feel that this is a reference to the time between the second decree of Artaxerxes in 445 B.C. and the time the temple was completed in 396 B.C. - exactly 49 years or seven 'sevens'. The second period begins in 396 B.C. and ends with the triumphal entry of Jesus into Jerusalem in 32 A.D., after which Jesus was 'cut off' - exactly 434 years (after allowing for leap years, ect) just as Dan. 9:26 said. Note though, that the Messiah is 'cut off' at the end of the 49 plus 434 years. This leaves one 'seven' yet to be fufilled. The last seven has not yet been fulfilled. Notice that Dan. 9:26 indicates that much time may pass, the city and sanctuary are destroyed. Finally, the 'ruler of the people' will make a covenant for one 'seven' with Israel and in the middle of the 'seven' will cause offerings and sacrifice to cease - which means the temple must be rebuilt by then. So, I don't really see a connection between Heb. 10:5-10, since the 'he' in Dan. 9:27 is the ruler of the people, not God. Concerning your last question, - "how could two individuals torment all people?" - simply by preaching the truth to them and being untouchable because of God's protection! :-) Note: The numbers above come from John MacArthur's, "The Future of Israel: Daniel 9:20-12:13". It is a very interesting book and can be ordered from him. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6660 | Two witnesses Jehovah's Witnesses? | Rev 11:3 | Morant61 | 54790 | ||
Greetings Stokeyhk! If by "Jehovah's Witnessess" you are refering to the modern cult, the answer is 'No!' Perhaps you can clarify what you mean! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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