Results 6561 - 6580 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
6561 | spirit before God made us in thr womb | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9534 | ||
Greetings crv464cad! Excellent question! There are basically only four views concerning the origin of the soul. The first two are unbiblical. The second two are biblical. 1) Pre-existence of Souls: This is basically the Mormon belief. This view says that souls exist prior to conception and are placed into the body after conception. There is no Scripture to support this view. 2) Re-incarnation: This view is a variation of the first view. Souls exist and migrate from body to body after death. Scripture definitely speaks out against this view. 3) Creationism: This is the view that God creates each inividual soul at conception. This is grounded in the Genesis account that God breathed on Adam and he became a living soul. The only problem with this view is that it requires a special act of creation for each birth, making reproduction, not a natural act, but a supernatural one. 4) Traducianism: This is the view that God has created the process in such a way that soul and body are all passed on through conception. Thus, when our parents egg and sperm unite, a living soul is created in the unification. This view has several advantages. a) Each birth does not have to be a special creative act of God. b) It would also explain how our sin nature is transmitted from generation to generation. Options 1 and 2 are decidedly unbiblical. Options 3 and 4 are decidedly biblical. My preference is option 4. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6562 | Is God so shortsighted? | 1 Tim 2:11 | Morant61 | 9474 | ||
Greetings EdB! I've got you! I thought we were just talking about general principles! I didn't realize you were limiting your comments to just this passage! Sorry! However, even in this passage, there are many issues that are not clear. 1) Were the women discussed women in general or wives? 2) Was this a permanent practice of Paul's or a temporary practice (I am not permitting....)? 3) What does it mean to learn in quietness? The word is often used of an attitude not of a lack of speech! 4) How does this passage relate the general principles of Scripture? 5) How do we handle this passage in relation to other passage where women to teach and minister? I haven't read any intepretation of this passage that I think does total justice to it. It is not as clear what this passage means as some would have us think. For example, you mentioned the issue of homosexuality! I share your concern about the way it has been approached by some. However, I think there is a major difference between what they have done and what Prayon is refering to. There isn't any passage in Scripture that says it is okay to be a homosexual, but there are Scriptures where women are given leadership roles, prophecy, and speak in the services. Personally, I think when you have a passage like this, which is not clear, that it is best not to be dogmatic either way! I'm off for a few days at the beginning of the week, so I'll try to do some more digging and see what I can find! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6563 | Is God so shortsighted? | 1 Tim 2:11 | Morant61 | 9443 | ||
Greetings EdB! I read both this question and your amended question! I can't really think of any doctrine that would necessarily be effected by the historical data. But, in your original question, you did not specify doctrine. I was simply replying to your open ended question about whether or not it was possible to fully understand Scripture without consulting circumstances or history. I do believe that we need to dig deeper into circumstances and history to fully understand some passages, especially those of an occasional nature. So, I'm not sure if I can simply answer "yes or no." p.s. - Don't worry about wars, I don't fight with brothers! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6564 | What was the "discharge" Bible? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9424 | ||
Greetings Hank! I think the number of books in the Old Testament Apocrypha has changed over the years. The most current list I was able to find lists 19 books (with two books being duplicates under different names). Thus, there would be a current total of 18 books in the OT Apocrypha. These can all be accessed at: http://wesley.nnu.edu/noncanon/apocrypha.htm Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6565 | Some more questions? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9423 | ||
Greetings EdB! Excellent question and observations in this thread! I have long believed that one reason cults are able to motivate their people more effectively than churches is that they expect more of their people. People want to feel that they are important! So, when a cult demands "big" things of them, they feel like they are accomplishing something. Churches on the other hand, apologize for even expecting people to get up on Sunday morning. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6566 | Is God so shortsighted? | 1 Tim 2:11 | Morant61 | 9422 | ||
Greetings EdB! May I interject on this discussion? You are correct that the Bible is intended for all people at all times. However, it is also an occasional and historical document as well. By this I simply mean the following. a) Occasional: Many of the epistles are letters written to people going through certain circumstances. For instance, in Colossians, it is important to understand that Paul was dealing with an early form of Gnoticism that had invaded the Lycos Valley. Yes, you can understand Colossians without being aware of that, but I think you can understand it better when you know what occasioned the writting of the letter. b) Historical: It was written within history. There were events and customs that were unique to the time. Without an understanding of these customs and events, we might not fully understand the meaning of the text. For example, many people quote the illustration of the man who wanted to bury his father before he followed Christ (Mt. 8:21-22). Many have had a difficult time understanding why Jesus appeared so harsh when He said, "Let the dead bury their own dead!" However, a little knowledge of the customs of the time reveals that the man was using a common oriental excuse. He didn't intend to follow Jesus at all. Saying, "First let me bury my Father," was a polite way of getting out of doing something that you didn't really want to do. Therefore, Jesus responded harshly because he was not truly willing to follow Him. There are countless other examples where the customs, occasion, or history of the times makes Scripture come alive in a way that it couldn't without that information. So, I would agree with Prayon that we need to examine the customs and circumstances surrounding Scripture. Without doing so, we may be making some serious false assumptions. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6567 | Rapture and Day of the Lord the Same? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9420 | ||
Greetings Doug619! Thanks for the additional Scriptures! I said that I would do a word study on the phrase "Day of the Lord," so here goes. The phrase occurs 24 times in 22 verses in the NIV. a) It will be a day of judgment and wrath on sinners - Is. 13:6-13. b) It will be a time of doom for the nations - Ez. 30:3, Ob. 15, Zeph. 1:7, Zech. 14:1-7. c) It will be a day of destruction - Joel 1:15, Zeph. 1:14, Amos. 5:18-20. d) The army of the Lord will sweep across the nations - Joel 2:1-11. e) It will be a time of salvation for His people - Joel 2:18-32, 3:14-16. f) Elijah will precede the Day of the Lord - Mal. 4:5. g) The sun will be turned to darkness and the moon blood - Acts. 2:20. h) Souls will be saved on the Day of the Lord - 1 Cor. 5:5. i) Paul will boast of the fruits of his labor on the Day of the Lord - 2 Cor. 1:14. j) It will come like a thief in the night - 1 Thess. 5:2, 2 Pet. 3:10. k) Some had claimed that the Day of the Lord had already come - 2 Thess. 2:2. l) The heavens and the earth will be destroyed on the Day of the Lord - 2 Pet. 3:10 I think I have listed all of the references! Based upon the above, it would appear that the Day of the Lord would have to refer to the Day of Judgment at the end of time. It will be on that day that "every knee shall bow" (Phil. 2:10) and that sinners will be judged. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6568 | Rapture and Day of the Lord the Same? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9389 | ||
Greetings Elijah! Thanks for the clarification! I consider myself a pre-wrath rapture person. So, I have no particular attachment to a pre-tribulation rapture. However, there is enough uncertainty that I am willing to allow lots of wiggle room. For instance, in your exegesis of 2 Thes. 2:1-3, it could be that the "Day of the Lord" is different from the events described in verse one. It seems that the Thessalonians were being exposed to some false teaching that basically said (v. 2) that the "Day of the Lord" had already come. This caused concern among the new Christians because if the "Day of the Lord" had already come then that would mean that they had missed the rapture (v.1). Therefore, Paul argues in verses 2 and 3 that the "Day of the Lord" cannot come until certain things happen, as you pointed out it your post. The problem though is does "Day of the Lord" refer to the rapture or does it refer to the Day of Judgement which takes place after the tribulation and the millenium? I will try to do a word study on that phrase a little later! The best advice I have ever heard concerning the rapture is: Pray for Pre, but be prepared for Post! The important thing is that we live for Him everyday and in everyway, until He comes. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6569 | Where did you get this info? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9360 | ||
Greetings Ed! I do have an excellent memory, but not that good! Actually, I'd never heard of it before. I wasn't sure that the post was correct, so I hadn't even tried to do a search for it. When I was informed that it was a trivia question, I did a search. Boy, the internet can be wonderful! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6570 | Where did you get this info? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9350 | ||
Greetings Ed! Sorry about that! I did a search using Google and found the following two links: http://www.bartleby.com/81/5044.html http://dencity.com/holy/bible.html The second link is not a Christian site and has some objectionable language on it, which is why I didn't list it originally. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6571 | Women speak in church? | 1 Cor 14:34 | Morant61 | 9340 | ||
Greetings Schwartzkm! Excellent post! The basic principle you refer to is the principle of letting clear Scripture intrepret less clear Scripture. There are many possibilities relating to 1 Cor. 14:34: 1) He could be refering to wives! 2) He could be refering to a certain abuse of spiritual gifts! 3) He could be refering to a certain group of women who had been lead astray. 4) Ect... The simple fact is that we are not exactly sure what issue Paul was addressing in this passage. But, as you pointed out so well, there are many places where women are permited to speak in the church. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6572 | Book of Enoch? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9335 | ||
Greetings Deb! Here is a link where one can find almost every extra-biblical text know to man. It is a definite keeper. http://www.hivolda.no/asf/kkf/rel-stud.html I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6573 | Is active grace really faith | Gen 6:8 | Morant61 | 9304 | ||
Greetings Jim! Thanks for the clarification! My short answer would be that of James. Faith alone saves, but faith then produces action in our lives. James was concerned about people who said they had faith, but there was no corresponding change in their behavior. So, Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord because He believed God. Then, because he believed God, he did what God said. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6574 | Could it be the Torah? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9286 | ||
Greetings EllisYM! When you said that it was a trivia question, that gave me the clue that I needed. The "Discharge Bible" is one of many bibles editions that were given special names because of certain mistakes made in their printing. This particular one was an 1806 version in which 1 Timothy 5:21 says, "I discharge theee... that thou observe these things", instead of "I charge thee" I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6575 | Is active grace really faith | Gen 6:8 | Morant61 | 9253 | ||
Greetings Jim! Good guestion! I just had one question for you though! Where did Heb. 11:7 say that Noah didn't believe? I checked, but I never saw it. Are you maybe refering to another verse? Thanks! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6576 | Why do we call preachers reverend? | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9252 | ||
Greetings BobMann! It did a little research on the word 'Reverend." It seems to have developed very late in history. It was at first used for only certain levels in the Church structure. But, later it came to refer to all clergy. There is some debate about whether or not the use of the title for clergy is a good idea. My personal opinion is that no matter how it first started to be used, in our culture is simply is a prefix like 'Mr.' or 'Dr.' used to represent someone who is a memeber of the clergy. One pastor responded in the following way on a discussion board: "On the discussion board there was a response that said to use the word "Reverend" was blasphamous and that it was in the Bible that it was blasphemus. I would like to share with you the origin of the word Reverend as taken from the encyclopedia Britanica. Reverend is the prefix of written address to the names of ministers of most Christian denominations. In the 15th century it was used as a general term of respectful address, but it has been habitually used as a title prefixed to the names of ordained clergy since the 17th century. In the Church of England and in most other denominations in english speaking countries, deans, provosts, cathedral canons, rectors of seminaries and colleges are addressed as "very reverand and archbishops are addressed as "most reverend." Joy in Christ, Rev. Denise." -- Rev. Denise Rogers (mzone@usa.net), December 29, 2000 Personally, I don't use the title much. In official correspondance, I sign with Rev. Timothy S. Moran. However, in church, I prefer to be addressed as Pastor. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6577 | Heart, Mind, Soul and Strength | Mark 12:30 | Morant61 | 9248 | ||
Greetings Vijay Joseph! While no one is sure exactly what each word means, there is a reasonable clarity to the meaning of the verse. The first thing to note is that the Greek text says that we are love God out of the whole, and then lists four words from which this love is too spring. 1) Heart: This word in the New Testament ususally refers to two concepts. a) The seat of our passions or desires (cf. Acts 2:26; Jn. 16:6; 2 Cor. 7:3; Rom. 10:1; 1:24). b) The seat of reason or thought (cf. Mt. 7:21; Jn. 12:40; Acts 8:22; Mk. 11:23; Rev. 18:7; Rom. 1:21.) 2) Soul: This word seems to focus primarily on the life force of a person (Acts 20:10, 27:22, 27:10, and Mt. 6:25.) 3) Mind: seems to refer to understanding or thought (cf. Mk. 12:30; Heb. 8:10; 10:16; an arrogant disposition in Lk. 1:51.) 4) Strength: Seems to refer to personal ability. To sum up, one source that I counsulted said that these should not necessarily been taken as four seperate aspects of human nature, but rather as a description of the totality of our human nature or personality. Thus, the command to the love the Lord would be qualified with the thought that this love should spring from and include every bit of who and what we are. This is wonderful advice for many Christians for whom their Christian walk includes only Sunday. The kind of love that we all should have is comprehensive and total. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6578 | What was the discharge Bible? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 9243 | ||
Greetings EllisYM! Can you provide some more detail for your question? I'm not sure what the "discharge" bible is refering to. Thanks, Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6579 | Did Paul write the Laodiceans? | Col 4:16 | Morant61 | 9240 | ||
Greetings Nolan! Excellent post and original question! I agree with two of your "missing letters," but I'm not sure about the other two. 1 Cor. 5:9 definitely refers to a previous letter. In fact, 1 Cor. seems to be a response to their response to that letter. Col. 4:16 definitely mentions another letter. Concerning the various cities named Laodicea, you shared some excellent information. I do believe though that the Laodicea of Lycus was probably the one meant in both Col. 4:16 and Revelation, simply because it was on the same mail circuit as Colosse and the other cities named in Rev. 2-3. Eph. 3:3 I don't believe refers to a previous letter. I seems to the a case of an episitletory aroist. In other words, the words "I wrote briefly" refer back to chapters one and two of Ephesians, not to another letter. Just my opinion, but I think it most likely since the topic discussed in Eph. 3:3 is the topic of chapters one and two. Jude 3 I'm not sure where the reference to a previous letter is. He seems to be simply saying, "While I was writing, I felt the need to write about...." Thanks again! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6580 | Did Paul write the Laodiceans? | Col 4:16 | Morant61 | 9238 | ||
Greetings Nolan! Some of the verses definitely seem to be in Paul's sytle, but much more terse. From translating Paul's works, I know that Paul never meet a period that he liked. His sentences tend to run on for 10 to 15 verses. The imitator in the "Letter to the Laodiceans" writes short one liners only. Thus, even though some of the language is similar to Paul, the style seems to be much different. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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