Results 61 - 80 of 819
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: flinkywood Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | water to wine? | John 2:1 | flinkywood | 205552 | ||
Dear Tamara, Vincent’s Word Studies translates the phrase literally as “what is there to me and to thee?” and also notes that “Woman” implies “…no severity or disrespect,” which surely is the case since Jesus is the fulfillment of the Law and the infinite exponent of the 4th commandment to “honor thy father and mother”. Option 1: A term expressing disagreement or a mild rebuke: But the king said, "What have I to do with you, you sons of Zeruiah? If he is cursing because the LORD has said to him, 'Curse David,' who then shall say, 'Why have you done so?'" (2Sa 16:10) And Elisha said to the king of Israel, "What have I to do with you? Go to the prophets of your father and to the prophets of your mother." But the king of Israel said to him, "No; it is the LORD who has called these three kings to give them into the hand of Moab." (2Ki 3:13) Option 2: The free acceptance of the will of another whether reluctantly or not: "What have you to do with us, Jesus of Nazareth? Have you come to destroy us? I know who you are--the Holy One of God." (Mar 1:24) And crying out with a loud voice, he said, "What have you to do with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I adjure you by God, do not torment me." (Mar 5:7) Option 2 fits this context since Jesus immediately accedes to His mother’s wish and she recognizes instantly His intention to do no otherwise (v2.5). The expression, therefore, is idiomatic to be used either positively or negatively. In Mary's comprehension of her Son's mission and Jesus' obedient deference to His mother's will we have a portrait of the most profound love, respect and understanding. This isn't a story of separation but of unity. |
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62 | water to wine? | John 2:1 | flinkywood | 205510 | ||
Tamara, how do you conclude that Jesus is distancing Himself from from His mother? | ||||||
63 | An interesting discussion/question | Romans | flinkywood | 204961 | ||
CoG, Have you considered this passage? Then He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, "My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will." (Mat 26:39) Colin |
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64 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204894 | ||
Therefore let him who thinks he stands take heed that he does not fall. (1Co 10:12 NASB) |
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65 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204891 | ||
John, your reply was agreeable until the 2nd paragraph. Judge yourself. | ||||||
66 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204886 | ||
John, I admire Matthew Henry. J. Vernon McGee is also marvelous. I also consult JFB in my bible study. These are giants; but from reading scripture it is increasingly apparent to me that although forgiveness does happen initially in a categorical and declarative sense (succinctly expressed by McGee and GSB), sin remains within us (Rom 6:12; 7:15-18); therefore, one must examine his conscience daily for those offenses he commits out of pride, anger, lust, greed, fear; confront them (1 Cor 11:28) and confess them (1 John 1:9). To the point: If we don’t obey this faith to which we’re called (Rom 1:5; 16:26), we may forfeit our salvation (Heb 6:4-6; John 5:16-17). There are too many “if’s” in scripture to convince me our salvation is categorically guaranteed. My overall sense, and why I responded to Tamara in this thread, is that Jesus appears to have instituted a structure (John 20:23) to help the faithful obey the faith to which they’re called. Colin |
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67 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204870 | ||
John, I agree with Gill's statement from, "...to such as repent of their sins..." through to the end; that's the basis of our conversion, isn't it? What precedes that portion doesn't square with John 20:23, if not for the literalness of the verse (along with the others I cited), then because Christ, as God, can authorize whom He pleases. Colin |
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68 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204869 | ||
Doc, Of course "church triggered" forgiveness yields zilch; ditto Christ "plus", as you say. The verses in question don't imply either case, so I'll rest mine. Colin |
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69 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204857 | ||
Doc, Setting aside the Reformation and apostle-zotting, James 5:14-15 isn't bearing but sharing the weight of Matthew 9:6-8 (authority to "men"); John 20:23 (forgiving and retaining), Matthew 18:18 (binding and loosing). These verses resist the formulation, if I understand your thesis correctly, 'Only God forgives sin, ergo Jesus gave no man such authority." Read together and literally, these passages (John 20:23 especially) indicate the contrary. Where our interpretations coincide is that in either case the Spirit of Christ is the active agent (e.g. John 4:2), be it through His apostles or otherwise. Colin |
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70 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204790 | ||
Hi, Val, Nevertheless, James tells us that the healing is accompanied by forgiveness for any sins committed. | ||||||
71 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204785 | ||
Doc, I'd agree with you if scripture did: And the prayer of faith will save the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up. And if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven. (Jas 5:15) This verse seems to echo both in form and practice Jesus' healing of the paralytic in Matthew 9:2-8, which indicates that Jerusalem elders, called to imitate Christ, were doing so in a manner already well established by the time of James' writing. These verses lend credence to an interpretation of John 20:23 as indicating that our Lord did indeed authorize the apostles to forgive sin - and most certainly in His name. I do appreciate your view of John 20:23 as a commission to declare what God has already done; but Jesus hadn't yet ascended to the Father and was still about the business of founding and teaching His fledgling church on earth. For sure we're called to proclaim the Gospel and to "be holy" as our Father is Holy, but in this verse forgiving and retaining, like binding and loosing, are more about institution than proclamation. And of course none of it, not one jot or tittle, would be possible without the atoning work of Christ. I also take issue with you about Jesus not partnering with the apostles. How else to take the meaning of, "As the Father sent me, so I send you"? These are his brothers, his family, what better partners? And though I respect J.C. Ryle's opinion, it does sound like saying, 'the fact that cars kill so many people proves they were never meant for driving.' In other words, a conclusion doesn't change a fact. Thanks for your careful reply. Colin |
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72 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204778 | ||
Doc, Why would you have to chuck the solas? | ||||||
73 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204775 | ||
Tamara, in John 20:23 Jesus expressly gives the apostles authority to forgive or retain sins. Matthew corroborates this by citing the plural form "to men", where he could have said, "to a man." John 20:23 is pretty literal. And you're right to be shaken up; this particular verse got to me as well. Colin |
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74 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204774 | ||
Tamara, I didn't say anything about church hierarchy or pope or bishop or anything like that, I was citing scriptures that indicate authority to forgive sin (as to perform baptism) is conveyed to man through Christ: be that man an elder, priest, bishop, what have you, it's not the man who forgives or baptizes but the Spirit of Christ working through him. In all cases, the glory is to God, not to man. I also note that in James forgiveness is offered to those already in Christ but who've apparently sinned after the fact of believing in Him. This forgiveness comes via a "prayer of faith" from an elder. Webster's 1828 edition notes that presbyter is the derivation of the English "priest", btw, which, during the apostles' time, didn't have the negative connotations it has today. Colin |
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75 | A physical discription of Jesus Christ | Is 53:2 | flinkywood | 204760 | ||
Best try: For he grew up before him like a young plant, and like a root out of dry ground; he had no form or majesty that we should look at him, and no beauty that we should desire him. (Isa 53:2) |
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76 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204759 | ||
Dear Tamara, I disagree with the meaning you take from the Pharisees’ statement in Matthew 9:3: “…This man is blaspheming.” Matthew employs the Pharisees’ accusation of blasphemy against Jesus as positive, not negative, testimony of His divine authority to absolve sin, authority which He received from the Father. (In the Old Covenant, such forgiveness came only via the Temple sacrificial system). And because the Pharisees certainly saw Jesus as a mere man, Matthew deliberately contrasts their condemnation with the crowd’s simple acceptance of Jesus’ declaration through the verifiable sign of healing: “…they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had given such authority to men…” With a simple literary device, Matthew underscores how divine authority has indeed been granted to mortal men and emphasizes that the glory is not to man himself, but to God alone. Since the Gospel was also written to edify and instruct the Body of Christ, e.g. His Church, we have in these verses a vivid ecclesial proclamation that God is working through man, in this case through the Person of Christ, to effect His reconciliation with man; thus any man given authority to forgive sin would be doing so in the Person of Christ. Elsewhere, the Apostle John illustrates how this works in practice: Now when Jesus learned that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus was making and baptizing more disciples than John (although Jesus himself did not baptize, but only his disciples), (4:1-2) In Verse 4:2 Jesus oversees His apostles as they Baptize in His name, in His Person, as it were, so that any authority conveyed, and any sin forgiven thereby, is in the Person of Christ through His anointed “presbuteros” or “priest”. This is illustrated in James: Is anyone among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. And the prayer of faith will save the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up. And if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven. (Jas 5:14-15) Here the elder, or “priest”, speaks a “prayer of faith” which effects both healing and the forgiveness of sins. We assume, as James assumes, that these sick are believers who have sinned post accepting Christ and being baptized in His name. Have you read any early Church history on this question? Colin |
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77 | Retain or forgive sins? | John 20:22 | flinkywood | 204631 | ||
Dear Tamara, It does appear that Jesus gave such authority to the apostles in His name as a continuation of his ministry of mercy and reconciliation: All this is from God, who through Christ reconciled us to himself and gave us the ministry of reconciliation; that is, in Christ God was reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation. Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, God making his appeal through us. We implore you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God. (2Co 5:18-20 ESV) Is anyone among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. And the prayer of faith will save the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up. And if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven. (Jas 5:14-15 ESV) In the former verse, Paul explains that Jesus has entrusted "...to us the ministry of reconciliation...", which, in context, indicates the authority to carry out the forgiveness of "trespasses". Int the latter, the word "elders" translates the Greek "presbuteros", whence the English "presbyter" or "priest". It appears such "priests" were empowered for this anointing. Elsewhere the power to "forgive and retain" sins in Jesus' name is described as "binding and loosing": "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven." (Mat 16:19 ESV) "Truly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven." (Mat 18:18 ESV) And there is this: But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins"--he then said to the paralytic--"Rise, pick up your bed and go home." And he rose and went home. When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had given such authority to men. (Mat 9:6-8 ESV) Matthew is clear that this authority "to forgive sins" comes from Jesus "to men". You could argue that in context the people were confused, not yet realizing that Jesus was not only a man, but also God; but Matthew employs the plural form of man, which gives this account a decidedly ecclesiastical meaning. It's logical to ask why Jesus would not give the authority to forgive sins to those He entrusted to build His Church on earth. I like your spunky curiosity, btw. |
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78 | why jesus had not allowed mary to touch | John 20:17 | flinkywood | 202618 | ||
Dear H, These verses may also shine light on the question: "On my bed by night I sought him whom my soul loves; I sought him, but found him not. I will rise now and go about the city, in the streets and in the squares; I will seek him whom my soul loves. I sought him, but found him not. The watchmen found me as they went about in the city. "Have you seen him whom my soul loves?" Scarcely had I passed them when I found him whom my soul loves. I held him, and would not let him go until I had brought him into my mother's house, and into the chamber of her who conceived me." (Son 3:1-4 ESV) |
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79 | why jesus had not allowed mary to touch | John 20:17 | flinkywood | 202610 | ||
Here is an old posting on this question: ID# 127071. | ||||||
80 | why jesus had not allowed mary to touch | John 20:17 | flinkywood | 202596 | ||
What deception? | ||||||
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