Results 61 - 80 of 714
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Ray Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
61 | THe Spirit of Religion | Bible general Archive 1 | Ray | 86183 | ||
Hi Elijahprophet, The Scripture that you allude to is 2 Timothy 3:5, "holding to a form of godliness, although they have denied its power; and avoid such men as these." The Greek word here for godliness can be translated "piety". It should not be capitalized. Rather than studying about the spirit of religion would it not be better to study about the Spirit of God? Just a thought. From the heart, Ray |
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62 | Adult Question young people please do no | Bible general Archive 1 | Ray | 89481 | ||
Hi cherryappleberry, I don't see oral sex as being in the definition of sodomy. My definition of sodomy is taken from the official dictionary of choice of the Associated Press, The Wall Street Journal, The New York Times, and other leading newspapers.:) You ask "if it is not sodomy, is there any sin attached to it." I would say that sin enters the marital situation when something is forced upon the mate. I would encourage you to do the things that both of you enjoy. Romans 14:12-23 can apply to your situation. Verse nineteen says "So then let us pursue the things which make for peace and the building up of one another." Do the things that both of you enjoy. Verse 14 speaks to whether it is unclean or not. "I know and am convinced in the Lord Jesus that nothing is unclean in itself; but to him who thinks anything to be unclean, to him it is unclean." It goes on in verse 21 to say that it is not good to do anything by which your brother [by application, husband] stumbles. Verse 15 can be applied to your situation in that if "oral sex" hurts your husbands relationship with the Lord, then you will not do it or ask it of him because you are to walk "according to love". On the other hand, don't let your husband's feelings necessarily sway your own convictions. Verse 16 says "Therefore do not let what is for you a good thing be spoken of as evil." Verse 22 says that happy is he [she] "who does not condemn himself in what he approves". If you can agree later on that it is not a sin, I would think that there are possibilities of enjoyment there. But you know the kingdom of God is not in deciding what to eat and drink [or in having good sex, with or without oral sex]. The kingdom of God is "righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit"[Or, holy spirit?] See verse 17. I think that you will find hope in the Scriptures and will persevere to not only please yourselves, but to edify others. I think that it is important for you both to accept one another, trying to be of the same mind. Romans 15:13,14, "Now may the God of hope fill you with all joy and peace in believing, that you may abound in hope by the power of the Holy Spirit. And concerning you, my brethren, I myself also am convinced that you yourselves are full of goodness, filled with all knowledge, and able also to admonish each other." From the heart, Ray |
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63 | Is the Holy spirit a heart of God? | Bible general Archive 1 | Ray | 91166 | ||
Hi novangeli, Welcome to the forum. Genesis 2:7, NASB, "Then the Lord God formed man of dust from the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living being." [Marginal note, Lit, soul] 1 Corinthians 15:45, "So also it is written, "The first MAN, Adam, BECAME A LIVING SOUL." The last Adam [became] a life-giving spirit." I believe that from these Scriptures we can come to the understanding that man is not a spirit. A man is a living being, a soul. An angel is a spirit. God is Spirit. The second Adam, the Man Jesus Christ [became] a life-giving spirit. But we would have to look at Hebrews to know that He has become as much better than the angels [or,Angels?] for He is sitting at the right hand of the Majesty on high. Hebrews 1:3,4, "And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high; having become as much better than the angels, as He has inherited a more excellent name than they." He is the Son. Please take note of my capitalization for you will find that I have an interest in that. :) P.S. I have found in my studies that writing "Holy spirit" is confusing at best. I believe in the Person of the Holy Spirit as well as being filled with the holy spirit, but can not find any understanding for Holy spirit [sic]. I hope that you will enter into this discussion; many just ask their questions and leave. From the heart, Ray |
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64 | 2 Kings 19 is a copy of Isaiah 37! | OT general | Ray | 106712 | ||
Hi Free Thinker, First of all may I say that the two passages are not exact copies. The difference that I have found is in prayer of Hezekiah, 2 Kings 19:15. This would be of interest to the thinking of the Jehovah's Witness and their view of the Lord God as Jehovah. This would be of interest to a person who counts pronouns of Deity such as myself. From the heart, Ray |
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65 | Is Jesus God? Who is telling the Truth? | OT general | Ray | 107262 | ||
Hi Mommapbs, "Who is telling the Truth?", you say. Tara1 says that "truth is truth". Jesus said in John 14:6 that He was the Truth and the only Way to the Life and the gospel message. I would like to comment on flinkywood's post today where he quotes Scriptures from the LITV. Do you know what that version is? Anyway, he asks who the last speaker is for the references given. And I would like to look at Isaiah 41:1-4 with you all. Who is this last Speaker? Let us reason together for judgment. Isaiah 41:1-4, "Coastlands, listen to Me in silence, And let the peoples gain new strength; Let them come forward, then let them speak; Let us come together for judgment. "Who has aroused *one from the east Whom He calls in righteousness to His feet? *He delivers up nations before *him, and subdues kings. *He makes them like dust with *his sword, As the wind-driven chaff with *his bow. *He pursues them, passing on in safety, By a way *he had not been traversing with *his feet. Who has performed and accomplished it, Calling forth the generations from the beginning? I, the Lord, am the *first, and with the *last. I am He." I think that we in these last days can be looking for the Truth as well as the truth. I choose to capitalize "I, the Lord, am the First, and with the Last. I am He." To be consistent with the other verses of references that flinywood quoted, it should be First and Last. The nine pronouns that I *starred you can make up your own mind about but I think they are pronouns of the Truth. From the heart, Ray |
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66 | # of "I am " occurrences in New Testamen | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 3204 | ||
Hi vancotton, "I am" is found 259 times in the New Testament. A very quick count found 117 times where Deity is speaking. That count may or may not be accurate and may be subject to debate, also. We certainly serve a God of great variety do we not? We can talk about Paul being all things to all people, but certainly there are many pictures of what God is and can mean to all people. Later, Ray |
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67 | Jesus earth: God/man or just man? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 3317 | ||
Hi zuttione, This is a subject that is so basic to the Christian faith. The scripture that I think led me the most was John 2:24,"for He/Himself knew what was in man." But here is the difference in your view and mine as shown in your capitalization, intentional or not. The scripture doesn't say He himself knew what was in man. In other words, He was the God/Man. Scripture has themes of contrast; God and man,Light and darkness, Spirit and flesh, etc. This Man, Jesus was different from other men. I believe that people knew that He was the Son of Joseph for instance, as well as the Son of David. What I find fault with is that people seem to think that this Son of Man has to be a son of man. Look at John 2:18 in the NASB and compare the old copyright with the new. The newest copyright reads, "What sign do You show us as your authority for doing these things?" Note the "your authority". Yet they capitalize the pronouns in verse 23, "observing His signs which He was doing." I say compare John 2:18 with 3:2. He was doing these things because God was with Him, "for no one can do these signs that You do unless God is with him." In the Philippians section,"who, although He existed in the form of God," we're shown that He laid aside His priviledges, and took "the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men." But going on in the reading can I get you to capitalize,"And being found in appearance as a Man, He humbled Himself..."??? I've written a lot about this capitalization in this forum. Let me know what you think. Later, Ray |
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68 | Jesus' baptism; the Prophet to come | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 4308 | ||
Hi Pariter, I am a person who is interested in capitalization and it was for that reason that I questioned your phrase about the one who was to come. I would have wanted you to capitalize One as you do the Prophet. You see, I really do believe that Jesus is the Prophet and the One who is to come. I believe with John 11:27 (your ll:17 was a typing error) that Jesus was the Christ, the Son of God, even He who comes into the world." And in my capitalization I would make Him a Man and a Prophet. See Luke 7:39 "If this Man were a Prophet He would know..." In your Heb 7:ll reference I would capitalize Priest and v.13 "the One concerning whom these things are spoken" and the Priest in verse 15. In all the gospels I make Him my King. He is the Prophet, Priest, and King. He is the Way, the Truth, and the Life. Do you see where I come from? As for the portion in Isaiah 53 I make Him a Man of sorrows, and like One from whom men hide their face, and even 53:8 "For the transgression of My people to whom the stroke was due." In Acts 8:34 it says "Please tell me, of whom does the prophet (Isaiah) say this? Of himself, or someone else?" I keep it a small s because of the context. In the gospels where the context is of the Expected One I place the capital Someone else because why would they look for some mere one when they expect the Prophet. In Acts, Phillip preached Someone else, (even though the enuich may have been looking for someone beside Isaiah) he preached Jesus to him beginning with this Isaiah scripture. The fact that John the baptist didn't recognize Him as God doesn't bother me because the gospel of John was written to downplay who he was. He prepared the way, he wasn't the Way. And we too as witnesses of the gospel can only do as much as we're given. We do the best with what we know and have experienced. Later, Ray |
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69 | What does Scripture say about the Spirit | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 13825 | ||
Hi Joren, Keep on being a logical/analytical person for you'll need that trait to understand the Scriptures. May I suggest to you that if you know the Father and the Son, you know the Holy Spirit also for there is one God. God is Spirit and if you recognize the (capitalized) Son then you know that He is Holy. We as believers have the Spirit within us even as Galatians 2:20 says, "I have been crucified with Christ; and it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me;..." Notice the bad grammar for showing that He lives within and you are one with Him. Another comment that I would make is concerning your statement, "I have learned that the Spirit is that which God uses to reveal His truth to us." I believe that the Spirit is not an it, or a which, or a that which. God reveals His truth to us through the Scriptures and the words of God. John 3:34 says, "For He whom God has sent speaks the words of God; for He gives the Spirit (I would say spirit) without measure." Jesus spoke the words of God as a gift of spirit and promise and they are there for everyone. But not everyone is filled with this "spirit". Ephesians 5:18 to my mind says, ...but be filled with the spirit, speaking to one another in psalms..." So, Joren, I would say that if you want to know this Holy Spirit, keep reading your Scriptures. (I prefer the NASB.) John 10:14, "I am the good shepherd, and I know My own and My own know Me." |
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70 | How could the Bible be true? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 20033 | ||
Hi Praisemaster, I think that it is important to note what the inscription did not say also. I like the way that the quotation marks are arranged in the NKJ in the interest of clarity. John 19:21, "Therefore the chief priests of the Jews said to Pilate, "Do not write, 'The King of the Jews,' but, 'He said, "I am the King of the Jews."'" The truth that the Bible is putting forth is that He is indeed the (King). Pilate knew the (Truth), John 18:38, even though he did not act on it with the people. What he has written, though, he has written. "Jesus the Nazarene, the (King) of the Jews." The parentheses are mine however.:) A comparison with John 18:38 and John 19:21 shows me that what He said is Truth. It is because I know Him as my King that I make John 18:37 read thus along with my parentheses, "Therefore Pilate said to (Him), "So You are a King?" Jesus answered, "You say correctly that I am a King. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, to testify to the Truth. Everyone who is of the (Truth) hears My voice." Pilate said to Him, "What is Truth?"" John 18:39,40 also reinforce the truth that He was the King and not merely a man, but rather a Man. Barabbas was a robber but this Man, Jesus of Nazareth, did not think it robbery to be regarded as equal with God. |
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71 | Jesus and 888? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 23979 | ||
Hi millenious, "The name for Jesus in Greek is Iesous, and it has a theomatic value of 888." This was taken from "Theomatics" by Del Washburn, page 50. I couldn't find the quote in "Theomatics II". I,10; e,8; s,200; o,70; u,400; s,200; for 888 total. I don't know if the Hebrew word "Yhowsheba" adds up to that total or not. You'll have to check Webster's dictionary for that. Later, Ray |
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72 | Theomatics | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 24047 | ||
Hi millenious, I can only refer you to Theomatics.com and the book that Del Washburn wrote, "Theomatics II" found in any major book store. All I want is for us not to make our God, the Word, too small or limitted in what He could do. I still recommend the book. Later, Ray | ||||||
73 | Judas went to hell? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 28638 | ||
Hi Cephas, As you have learned, Judas went to his place. By the wording of your question I would infer that you have some doubt that that is hell. I don't think scripture says so, and I would be very slow in prejudging anyone. I think that the story of Judas in the Scriptures show us that God is in control. He first of all is the Judge of all, which is good to keep in mind in regard to your question. The second way God is shown to be in control in the life of Judas is that Jesus is always several steps ahead of him. He is the all-knowing God. John 2:23, "Now when He was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many believed in His name, beholding His signs which He was doing. But Jesus, on His part, was not entrusting Himself to them, for He knew all men, and because *He did not need anyone to bear witness concerning man for He Himself knew what was in man." See also Matthew 9:6 Compare John 6:64 with John 13:24 for WHO IT IS. John 6:64, "'But there are some of you who do not believe.' For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were who did not believe and WHO IT WAS that would betray *Him. And He was saying, "For this reason I have said to you, that no one can come to Me, unless it has been granted him from the Father." So you see that God knows who will believe and everything is in God's control. This is where some of the disciples left Him, but the bottom line is "*Lord, to whom shall we go? You have words of eternal life." So even if we don't like to have God in control, there is no other Way. John 13:21, "When Jesus had said this, He became troubled in spirit, and testified, and said, "Truly, truly, I say to you, that one of you will betray Me. The disciples began looking at one another, at a loss to know of which one He was speaking. There was reclining on Jesus breast one of His disciples, whom Jesus loved. Simon Peter therefore gestured to him, and said to him, "Tell us WHO IT IS of whom *He is speaking." So God is in control and knows what will be happening. The Old Testament prophecies are going to be fulfilled in His Son and Judas is going to be a part in it. John 13:18, "I do not speak of all of you. I know the ones I have chosen; but it is that the Scripture may be fulfilled, 'He who eats My bread has lifted up his heel against *Me.'" John 13:27, "And after the morsel, Satan then entered into him. Jesus therefore said to him, 'What you do, do quickly.' Now no one of those recling at the table knew for what purpose *He had said this to him. Jesus knew what would happen to Him because He had come to die and to fulfill the Scriptures. John 18:3, "Jesus therefore, knowing all the things that were coming upon Him, went forth, and said to them, "Whom do you seek?" They answered Him, "Jesus the Nazarene." He said to them, "I am He." And Judas also who was betraying *Him, was standing with them." So go back and look at the starred pronouns and see how well Jesus knew what would happen in the betrayal by Judas. Jesus knew but the disciples did not. It wasn't necessary that the disciples should know who would do what or what would happen to whomever. Î think that Jesus could say to us concerning Judas the same message of John 21:21,22, "and what about this man?...what is that to you? You follow Me." One last thought. John 18:14, "Now Caiaphas was the one who had advised the Jews that it was expedient for one man (Man) to die on behalf of the people." Jesus had come to die. It is sad that Judas died in suicide but it was not in His plan for any of the disciples to be lost. Jesus asked His captors whom they sought (even though He knew all the things that were coming upon Him), and they answered "Jesus the Nazarene." John 18:8, "Jesus answered, "I told you that I am *He; if therefore you seek Me, let these go their way." What way the disciple went we do not know, but Judas went to his place.:) I wouldn't be quick to judge where he went. We only have to follow Jesus. But it remains that Jesus lost none of the disciples in His purpose here on earth. John 18:9, "that the word might be fulfilled which He spoke, "Of those whom Thou hast given Me, I lost not one." I don't need to judge Judas, but I need to glorify the Son of Man, the one Man who tasted death for us. Later, Ray |
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74 | But consider what I am actually asking | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 119223 | ||
Hi danCER, If there is one baptism, it would have to be a spiritual baptism. I see no water in Acts 19 or Romans 6. Ephesians 4:5, "one Lord, one faith, one baptism,..." From the heart, Ray |
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75 | Baptism without water? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 119236 | ||
Hi danCer, You are new here, but if you check the archives using the yellow Search or the Quick Search you could find an abundance of material. Enter into any discussion you might find of interest there. As far as my interests are concerned, we might talk of whether there is a holy spirit or whether Jesus baptised with the holy spirit. Acts 19:2, "and he said to them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" And they said to him, "No, we have not even heard whether there is a Holy Spirit ." [I would say holy spirit in both cases here] John 1:33, "And I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, 'He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.'" [ I would say that He baptizes in the "holy spirit'"]. From the heart, Ray |
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76 | A man of God? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 121337 | ||
Hi Hank, First of all the man of God is one who believes in Him. Galatians 3:5, NKJ, "Therefore He who supplies the Spirit [or spirit?] to you and works miracles among you, does He do it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? -- 6 just as Abraham 'believed (God), and it was accounted to him for righteousness.'" 7 Therefore know that only those who are of faith are... 9 blessed with believing Abraham." Genesis 15:6, "Then he believed in the (Lord); and He reckoned it to him as righteousness." John 3:16, "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in (Him) should not perish, but have eternal life." John 1:12, "But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in (His) name, 13 who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." The parentheses are mine for comparison. It can be shown that the man/woman of God who BELIEVES in (Him) also WALKS in Him, BELONGS to Him, and is CHOSEN by Him. Blessings to you, Hank. From the heart, Ray |
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77 | Only for the early Church? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122396 | ||
Hi WTB, I reread your question to see if I had spoken anything at all to it on this thread so far. You wrote, "The Holy Ghost empowers the true Church to be witnesses to Him (Jesus),...[to bring] souls to Him." I certainly agree with you; and the thought that came to me when considering your parenthesis around Jesus is just what do we think about Him and what do we PROFESS about Him. Acts 1:8 to my mind tells us to be witnesses to the (Spirit). When the Holy Spirit comes upon us we become witnesses for (Jesus) but it is in the sense that we know that He is God and God is Spirit. I would also like to speak to the thought of POSSESSING the Holy Spirit. General thoughts to everyone: We do not possess God. We do not possess the Holy Spirit. I would not even say that we possess the holy spirit. The idea is that we are "possessed" , guided, controlled by the words and thoughts of the Holy Spirit as put forth in the word of God and with which we have filled our minds and hearts. Being filled with "holy spirit" is what kind of spirit we are of. The works that Jesus did were to explain that the Father had sent Him. He glorified God on the earth. God gave Him words to say and He spoke them. John 17:8, "...and they received them, and truly understood that I came forth from Thee, and they believed that Thou didst send Me." Now we have the Spirit of truth. John 16:12, "I have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13 But when He, the Spirit of truth comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. 14 He shall glorify Me; for He shall take of Mine, and shall disclose it to you." John 17:17, "Sanctify them in the truth; Thy word is truth. As Thou didst send Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they themselves also may be sanctified in truth." We are to witness to the truth of the word of God. Speaking of the love of Christ and God our Savior is the best way of speaking in tongues. From the heart, Ray |
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78 | (h)oly (s)pirit / (H)oly (S)pirit...HUH? | NT general Archive 1 | Ray | 122817 | ||
Hi following him, You'll have to be observant here. I do not print (h)oly or (H)oly as you did in your question here, but rather, by the parentheses I am suggesting that one has a choice of interpretation. It is either holy or Holy. [That is, (h)Holy]. Your choice is holy spirit or Holy Spirit. [That is, (h)Holy (s)Spirit]. The Greek definite articles offer a choice of translating One or one; of "that one" or "that One". You have a choice personally of following that one or that One. That is, of following (h)Him. Now, I don't care if one chooses to put pronouns in lower case; most of us started our studies on the King James version of the Bible. We are used to the lower case used there. However, even in the King James, if the Holy Ghost is spoken of, capital letters are used. Pronouns of Deity should be capitalized to my mind, and I study from the NKJ and the NASB. I only hope that if one is following him, that the person counts Him as Deity in his mind and spirit. The Greek and Hebrew are not languages that differentiate between upper and lower cases; the choice of lower case "spirit" and upper case "Spirit" is determined by context and grammar. It is a matter of interpretation rather than translation. For instance, Romans 8:15 in my NASB Study Bible reads that "you have received a spirit of adoption as sons by which we cry out, "Abba, Father." The copy has a marginal note of [Or, the Spirit]. So here is the choice for you: "you have received a (s)Spirit of adoption as sons..." What is your choice in interpreting the verse? From the heart, Ray |
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79 | Genesis 1:26-27 | Genesis | Ray | 28504 | ||
Hi hollyh, I believe that Genesis 1:26 is good proof that the Man, Jesus Christ was in the Beginning with the Father. This is my read of Revelation 22:13. "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End." What do you think? Give us a little closer here. Ray |
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80 | WHY DID ISAAC DIG NEW WELLS. | Genesis | Ray | 51180 | ||
Hi JIMMY MACK, Welcome to the forum. This is called the Study Bible Forum and so I recommend to you the use of a study bible. They will, for instance, give you the literal meaning of words in their margins. Let me give you those meanings and then you can make any points that you may want to make. First of all Isaac dug again the wells that his father Abraham had dug and called them by their old names. Then they dug in the valley and found there a well of flowing water. Genesis 26:19. It is interesting to note that the study bibles tell us that the literal word for flowing [springing, KJ] water is "living". See John 4:13,14, "Jesus answered and said to her, "Everyone who drinks of this water shall thirst again; but whoever drinks of the water that (I) shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall become in him a well of water springing up to eternal life." John 4:10, "Jesus answered and said to her, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it [He] is who says to you, 'Give Me a drink', you would have asked (Him) and He would have given you living water." Anyway, the neighbors of Isaac said that the water was their's, here in Genesis. And they strove for it, they contended over it. And thus, the literal word for the well called "Esek" is i.e. contention. They dug another well and quarrelled over that also. The well named "Sitnah" means "i.e. enmity". He moved away and as you say did not defend his rights to the wells, until he dug one that was not quarrelled over. He named it "Rehoboth", i.e. broad, for he said, "At last the (Lord) has made room for us, and we shall be fruitful in the land." I think that the thing that we can get from the story of the wells is that the Lord was with him. Isaac was allowed to leave in peace after the disputes and left a well on his own also. Looking back on it Isaac could see that the people in the valley of Gerar and Abimelech were doing him nothing but good even though he could not see it at the time. When Isaac went up to the land of his father and dug another well at Beersheba, there he was completely blessed as that name signifies. Genesis 26:28, "And they [Abimelech and company] said, "We see plainly that the Lord has been with you; so we said, 'Let there now be an oath between us, even between you and us, and let us make a covenant with you, that you will do us no harm, just as we have not touched you and have done to you nothing but good, and have sent you away in peace. You are now the blessed of the (Lord)." So sometimes we have to just trust that the Lord knows best and accept things as they come and not "stick up for our rights" all of the time. We need to learn I would suppose, to pick the right battles to fight, and to accept some things until the battle needs to be fought. That's what I got from your question, and thank you for it. From the heart, Ray P.S. I don't want to pick a fight, but I hope that you will use your shift key and not "yell". Thanks. |
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