Results 481 - 500 of 500
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Reformer Joe Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
481 | Not preached on?? | Matt 26:13 | Reformer Joe | 4870 | ||
The very fact that this account is included in Matthew's gospel fulfills what Jesus says. | ||||||
482 | ONE GOD | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 4822 | ||
Please don't use all caps. It is hard on the eyes and distracts from your message. The Bible makes it quite clear in the verses I cited that Jesus is clearly identified as an active agent in the creation of ALL things. I am not sure whether you are challenging the Bible or my understanding of the Bible. What is your interpretation of John 1:3 and Colossians 1:16? Seems pretty straightforward; one has to do some serious mental gymnastics to get around the obvious. As far as Jesus praying to the Father, there has eternally been communion and communication and perfect cooperation between the three persons of the Trinity. Why would Jesus be praying to the Father seem so strange? In any case, Jesus laid aside his privileges as God when he became human, and lived life as a perfectly obedient human being (Philippians 2:7,8). He as a man yielded himself completely to the Father, living out a morally perfect human existence so that that righteousness could be imputed to us (2 Corinthians 5:21; Philippians 3:9). God the Son voluntarily became a man to pay the penalty for our sins; and to be that perfect sacrifice, perfect obedience was required (Romans 3:25). One last thing: difference in roles of the three persons of the Trinity does not mean that they are unequal in nature. Speaking of Jesus' prayer in the garden, John 17 is quite the testimony to Jesus' equality with God the Father (vv. 4-5,10,19,21). So what is your view? Who do you say that Jesus Christ is? --Joe! |
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483 | What does "kingdom of God" mean? | Matt 6:33 | Reformer Joe | 4808 | ||
Now THIS is an excellent question, Hank! The Kingdom of God includes Heaven, for that is where God's will is done. However, it would seem from Scripture that there is more to it than just the eternal paradise waiting for those who are being saved. For example, it seems that the Jewish mindset of the day thought that the Kingdom of God would be a socio-political one, perhaps the monarchy to be re-established by the Messiah in Israel. For example, even the eleven asked Jesus if he was going to establish the kingdom at that time (Acts 1). In Luke 17, however, Jesus tells the Pharisees that the kingdom of God is already "in their midst." On the other hand, he tells his disciples to pray "Your kingdom come. Your will be done, On earth as it is in heaven." (Matthew 6:10). Dallas Willard, in his acclaimed book, _The Divine Conspiracy_ (a challenging read but a highly-recommended one), contends that this verse of the Lord's Prayer has a great deal to do with the idea of the kingdom of God. Willard says "...Gods' own 'kingdom' or 'rule' is the range of his effective will, where what he wants done is done." Obviously Willard considers the "kingdom of God " to have only one meaning, where it finds its truest expression in Heaven right now (and where it has always existed). However, the Kingdom also is likened to a mustard seed in Mark 4. It would seem that the Kindgom, from all the verses I reviewed in trying to address this fascinating question, is a kingdom with two aspects, one which eternally exists in glory, and one which is being established here in the church invisible, by those who are following Gods' will and being used as instruments for his glory. This question certainly does beg for much deeper examination than I have given it so far in this post; what do you think? --Joe! |
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484 | JOE THROWS ONENESS INTO HERESY | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 4742 | ||
You know, it is not a big boost to credibility when you flood the forum with the identical post over and over again rather than meaningfully dialogue with a Trinitarian who will agree with MOST of what you have said above wholeheartedly. Please see my detailed, point-by-point response elsewhere, as I am going to have the courtesy not to beat everyone over the head with what I consider to be the truth. God's truth stands on its own and does not require my cross-posting to be convincing to those with ears to hear. --Joe! |
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485 | difference in trinity and oneness | 1 Tim 2:12 | Reformer Joe | 4624 | ||
Trinitarians and "Oneness" adherents both believe in one God. They also both believe that The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are clearly identified as God in Scripture. Where Trinitarians and modalists part ways is here: Trinitarians assert that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, while each being fully God, are three distinct "persons." That is, the Father exists simultaneously with the Son and the Holy Spirit, meaning the Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Spirit, and the Spirit is not the Father. Onesness folks deny this, saying that the Father is the Son and the Holy Spirit (usually claiming that Jesus is all three), and that God just acts in different roles or "modes" at different times. It is not an insignificant controversy, as some on this forum seem to have suggested. We are talking about the very nature of who God is, and one's entire theology stems from his/her understanding of the nature of God. So, Oneness states "One God, three roles." Trinitarianism declares "One God, three persons each of whom is fully God, and distinct roles for each person of the Trinity (even though there is cooperation among them all in creation and salvation)." I have yet to have any "oneness" follower satisfactorily explain away Jesus' references to the Father as distinct from himself, simultaneous manifestations of all three, God the Father's references to Jesus as distinct from himself, Jesus' references to the Spirit as being distinct from himself, the fact that the Son is the mediator between the Father and Christians, the fact that "God made Him who had no sin to be sin for us" (1 Corinthians 5:21), etc., etc. The fact is that the early church councils who codified the term "Trinity" were not inventing some heresy, but articulating what God reveals about himself in the whole of Scripture. The Bible teaches the Trinity, and any deviation from this doctrine leads to heresy and cultism. --Joe! |
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486 | Does Satan have free will? | Job 2:6 | Reformer Joe | 4572 | ||
I don't know about "often," but Scripture tells us taht he does it. In Matthew 4, the Holy Spirit even leads Jesus out to be tempted by Satan. Just as God is not the author of our sin but fits it into the grand scheme that ends up with God and the church victorious, he also uses Satan's hatred of God to his purposes as well. One only needs to read through the rest of the book of Job to see how God uses even his enemies to his glory. --Joe! |
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487 | WHY DO WE NEED TO EVANGALIZE? | Matt 28:19 | Reformer Joe | 4571 | ||
1. Christ commanded it (Matthew 28:19). 2. It is our purpose as "new creations" to glorify God, which includes evangelism. The fact that some will not be regenerated is not an excuse. We will worship and praise God for all eternity in Heaven, and everyone there will already be in complete agreement with us. Therefore, proclaiming Christ and His gospel is not only for the purpose of "winning the lost," but for proclaiming the excellencies of Him who CALLED us out of darkness into His marvelous light. (1 Peter 2:9,10; see also 2 Cor. 5:17-21 and Ephesians 2:8-10). 3. While God in his sovereignty certainly doesn't NEED his creation to call the elect to himself, we are clearly the ordained means of doing so. It is the Holy Spirit who regenerates the elect, but He usually works in tandem with the Gospel proclaimed verbally by believers. Therefore, we are God's primary ordained MEANS of the message coming to the currently-unbelieving elect, whom God the Holy Spirit will supernaturally re-create to believe the message. The important thing to remember is that saving faith involves an object (Christ's sinless life, substitutionary death, and resurrection). Gad causes believers to believe, but the "information" also has to be present for the elect to place his faith in. Therefore, while God has chosen, he has allowed us the privilege of being a part of his redemptive work! While my neighbor's salvation due to God's grace and mercy (or her just condemnation) does not DEPEND on my evangelism to her, I am disobedient to our holy God when I do not proclaim the Gospel, and I also do not share in the blessing of being God's instrument if I keep silent. One last corollary to all the above: while the elect is known to God, He has not revealed it to us. Therefore, we should not assume that someone not saved right now will not be called to faith in Christ at some future point. Those who use the doctrine of unconditional election to refrain from proclaiming Christ crucified and raised either misunderstand the message or are merely using it as an excuse. --Joe! |
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488 | Selfish or Self-interest? | Phil 1:23 | Reformer Joe | 4550 | ||
I'd like to bite a piece off this discussion, if I may. I would like to take the last verse first. The "loving ourselves" is not the command. It is human nature to love ourselves. What is not automatic is loving others in the same way. This is altruistic in nature, and reflects much the same message as Philippians 2, where we are told to not look out merely for our own interests, but also the interests of others. Again, it is not a command to look after our own interests (that goes without saying); the command is to humble ourselves and serve others. John 3:16 makes a declarative statement about who will have eternal life. From my Calvinist perspective, this is not an enticement to follow Christ, since we are morally incapable of choosing that route without the Holy Spirit's regeneration. Therefore, this is merely a commentary on the eternal destiny of those who believe. Matthew 11:28 is right in the middle of a discourse which supports the Reformed position of divine election. In any case, this verse has to do with personal peace in knowing Him ("rest for your souls") and not a comfortable lifestyle, as Jesus makes it very clear throughout the Gospels that following him will bring hardship, suffering, and often death. In Matthew 19, Jesus is not making an offer to humanity, but rather declaring God's plan for those whom He has called. While there is without a doubt eternal reward for following Christ, eternal life hinges on what God has done for us. All of the verses you cited describe the final outsome of the elect, but Romans 3:10-18 makes it pretty clear that it is not a path we would ever choose on our own. Therefore, self-interest is the pattern that the unregenerate follow wholeheartedly, not those who are being saved. In Philippians, Paul desires to be with Christ. He longs for his eternal home, which for him is far better. Any Christian who would not rather be in Heaven than on earth really doesn't have a very good grasp of what Heaven will be like. However, as you say, Paul sees that God has more in store for him here on earth, and that his continued presence will be beneficial to the church in Philippi. Paul understands that to be with Christ is to be like Christ (i.e. glorified, with one's sin nature utterly destroyed forever) and to worship the Lord joyfully for all eternity. I long for that day as well, but I also realize that as long as the Lord leaves me on this planet, I have a part in God's redemptive purpose (2 Cor. 5:20, 1 Peter 2:9,10, Ephesians 2:10), which I also joyfully undertake, knowing that my sovereign God's plan is best and that the glory belongs to him. One more thing regarding Philippians. Take note that Paul was by no means in a state of misery. For him it wasn't a choice between Heaven or "Hell on earth." Despite the fact that he was in prison, he is joyful because of the ministry of the church, the preaching of the Gospel, and the opportunity to serve and be served by his brothers and sisters in Christ, all of which glorify God. Does this seem rambling to you? It was somewhat hard to be both brief (if indeed one could consider this brief!) and also cover most of the bases you brought up in your questions. Perhaps looking at just one or two aspects of the question at a time would be more beneficial. Anyhow, thanks for your patience in reading my reflections! --Joe! |
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489 | Who is God referring to? | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 3917 | ||
Himself (i.e. the Father), the Son (John 1:1-3; Colossians 1:15-17), and the Holy Spirit (Genesis 1:2). In other words, the verse is Trinitarian. --Joe! |
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490 | God speaking of Himself as "US" | Gen 1:26 | Reformer Joe | 4525 | ||
To add to Hank's Trinitarian answer, we see in other parts of Scripture where the other two persons of the Trinity were present and/or actively involved in the creation as well. Genesis 1:2 shows the Spirit present hovering above the waters. John 1:1-3 and Colossians 1:15-17 clearly indicate Christ's active role in creating the universe. As Hank correctly put it, the "Us" refers to those involved in creation, the persons of the Trinity. --Joe! |
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491 | Is incomplete temptation real temptation | Heb 4:15 | Reformer Joe | 4524 | ||
I hold that the reason for his temptation was to outwardly demosntrate what was inwardly true, i.e. the complete obedience and moral perfection of Jesus Christ. Christ could not successfully be tempted to sin because he is eternal God. However, if he was kept from any opportunity to sin, how could he have truly demonstrated perfect obedience to God and thereby be an acceptable sacrifice for OUR sins? A good point of comparison would be Adam. Adam began in moral perfection, and God's only command to him was not to eat of that tree over there. Now if God had a 20-foot high, barbed-wire fence erected around the tree, how could Adam have demonstrated his obedience? For complete and total obedience to God, the avenue to disobedience must be available in some form. Now, while Adam chose to sin, being morally corruptible, Jesus would not and could not. The Father and the Spirit knew this, of course, but obedience without the opportunity to sin is not really obedience, just existence. In this way, Christ demonstrated both inward and outward obedience at every moment, and it is this obedience which was lived out in order that it could be credited to us once we are regenerated as believers. I would love to hear any feedback on this one! --Joe! |
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492 | How can Jesus be tempted if He is God? | Heb 4:15 | Reformer Joe | 4521 | ||
Temptation, despite our modern usage of the term, does not necessarily originate from our own sinfulness. We see that Jesus, for example, was tempted in the wilderness by Satan, as we see in Matthew 4:1. Who was the tempter? Satan. Was Jesus tempted? The rest of chapter 4 is pretty clear on that. Did Jesus sin? By no means! Therefore, the temptation of Matthew 4 has absolutely nothing to do with any moral imperfection that lay within Jesus during the incarnation. Now in James 1, the apostle is obviously referring to those who are not only tempted, but those who SUCCUMB to temptation (as we see in v. 14). For possessors of a sin nature such as we are, we can be tempted by our lusts, as well as by external tempters, or a combination of the two. What James DOES write is that God cannot be tempted (i.e. convinced/coerced into sin), and God is not the one who will tempt (i.e. convince/coerce others to sin). Now he may ALLOW us to be tempted, but but he is not the author of temptation to sin. We see this understanding of temptation also in the Lord's Prayer (or "model prayer," if you prefer). Jesus instructs that we should pray to not be led into temptation, in Matthew 6:13. Now it would be nonsense for someone to pray to the Father not to lead them into actual sin. Therefore, "temptation" here must mean something else. The Spirit (i.e. God) led Jesus into his temptation in the wilderness, but The Spirit did not lead him into sin. Therefore, the author of Hebrews tells us that Jesus our High Priest has been tempted, it refers to his exposure to avenues in which humans could sin in word, thought, or deed. However, as the rest of the verse says, he was "without sin" totally and completely in the face of such enticements. Make sense? --Joe! |
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493 | Are we there, yet? | Matt 16:18 | Reformer Joe | 4443 | ||
Well, the church has obviously been established (Acts 2), but Christ has not returned yet. Therefore, the church is still being built, as we are the living stones (1 Peter 2:5). The true church is firmly rooted in Christ, but will be a work in progress until Christ's return. Incidentally, if you have never taken the time to study church history, it is a fascinating read of how God has kept the gates of Hades from overpowering her. It gives you a real sense of continuity and helps see yourself in the whole context of "our people." I would recommend as a starting point _Church History in Plain Language_ by Bruce Shelley. --Joe! |
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494 | Is prayer of Jabez special? | 1 Chr 4:10 | Reformer Joe | 4441 | ||
Hank, I think it is special only as far as every sincere prayer to our holy God is special. Not having read Wilkinson's book, I do not feel terribly qualified to comment on it. However, its enormous popularity among our lukewarm Christian book-buying populace makes me reluctant to go out and buy a copy. I have just seen too many people go hog wild (a Texas saying that you Razorbacks are familiar with, I am sure!) over the latest thing, whether it be the "Gulf War equals prelude to Armageddon," the Y2K thing, the so-called "Bible Code," or even the "Left Behind" series (oops, now I KNOW that there will be backlash on that one!). In my never-humble-enough opinion, my brothers and sisters in Christ should stop following the latest fads/trends, get back into some serious study of the Word, ground themselves in good, Biblical theology, and obey the Holy Spirit in being ambassadors for Christ, which is what we were re-made to do (2 Corinthians 5:17-20). As you undoubtedly know, Hank, there are many examples of prayers in the Bible. My personal favorite is John 17. Of course, the one praying had the art down pretty good... Always a pleasure, Hank! --Joe! |
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495 | He who comes first shall come last, | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 4417 | ||
Jesus spoke these words in the Matthew 20 as the moral of the parable of the workers in the field. Jesus is speaking of the generosity of God toward those who are called to serve God later (i.e. "those who do not work in the field as long"). In the parable, all get the same reward, no matter when they were called into the field. This could be referring to those who come into a relationship later in life, or he also could be comparing the Jewish people (who were God's first chosen) to the Gentiles (who are brought into the kingdom "A.D."). In any case, God's grace is shown to all, and he will be generous as he wills to do so. |
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496 | Are Adam and Eve in Hell? | Deuteronomy | Reformer Joe | 4409 | ||
I don't think so. What is your reason for thinking they might be? --Joe! |
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497 | Predestination vs free will--a thought.. | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 4405 | ||
Of course, Jesus had no sin, which puts him in a completely different category than those of us who are by our very nature opposed to the things of God (Romans 3:10-18). Jesus had the moral ability to please God the Father, and he did so in every way. We can't without the regeneration that comes from the Holy Spirit. One must be very careful when we compare sinful man to the holy Son of God. Despite the human nature he took on, He most definitely is in a separate category from us in so many ways. It is impossible for me to reconcile Romans 9 with a "we-cooperate-with-God" perspective, or with the idea that he bases his election on our decision and not the counsel of His will (Ephesians 1:11). If you have a way to do so, please share with us. --Joe! |
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498 | did the wine from the water make you dr | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 4403 | ||
I have never heard any compelling arguments why it was anything but real, fermented wine. Contrary to what our distinctively American, post-temperance evangelicalism tells us, drinking alcohol is never condemned in Scripture, only drunkenness. --Joe! |
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499 | What teacher read Isaiah? | Luke 4:18 | Reformer Joe | 4372 | ||
That would be our Lord Jesus Christ, who reada Messianic passage from Isaiah 61 and announced that "today this scripture is fulfilled in your hearing." Thus, according to Luke 4:14-21, he initiated his Messianic ministry. | ||||||
500 | Athanasius not RC? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 4349 | ||
You are correct. There were still many factions within the church, however. The reason church councils were called in the first few centuries after the completion of the New Testament was to "pull together" the different revelations of God from the entirety of Scripture. The early church councils did not "create" doctrine; their purpose was to examine the Scriptures to codify in creedal form what was given to us by God. | ||||||
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