Results 221 - 240 of 3692
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Results from: Notes Author: Makarios Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
221 | Is there a free Bible? | 1 Thessalonians | Makarios | 156494 | ||
Mark, Wow! Interesting info, and thank you for the website! Your Brother in Christ, Makarios |
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222 | HOW DID JOHN DIE? | John | Makarios | 156435 | ||
Greetings V60460, I assume that you are speaking of John the Apostle.. History has it that he died while exiled on Patmos, where he wrote the Book of Revelation, of old age. He was one of the few apostles that did not die as a martyr of the faith. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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223 | Is there a free Bible? | 1 Thessalonians | Makarios | 156432 | ||
Greetings Mark! From what I've read and seen from the World English Bible, I believe that it is a very good, highly accurate translation. I believe that it is based on the Byzantine Text tradition (Majority Text, Textus Receptus) as you have stated, the same tradition as the KJV and NKJV. But I'm not exactly sure if it is based on the Textus Receptus itself or mostly on the Majority Text. It is definitely more of a formal equivalence type of translation. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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224 | Is there a free Bible? | 1 Thessalonians | Makarios | 156368 | ||
Greetings Kalos! I believe that the answer may lie in whatever 'manuscript family' you like.. Since I was brought up on the NIV (I know, I'm a youngin!), growing up with the NASB wasn't too much of a problem for me. But for those who really like the KJV better, remember the KJV, and have become quite familiar with it, the NKJV is a logical step forward and a very accurate translation itself. There are certain personal issues of mine that keep the NASB as "supreme" for me, but I do use the NKJV quite a lot in comparison with the NASB and ESV. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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225 | Are these the "willfully sinning" v26? | Heb 10:39 | Makarios | 155594 | ||
Greetings Mommapbs, Romans 1:21 completes supports what I wrote to you about Matthew 25:32-46. Not every man has faith. Apostates and unbelievers do not have faith. I am a bit confused by your comments and not at all sure of where you are going with your thinking, or if it is based upon Scripture. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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226 | Are these the "willfully sinning" v26? | Heb 10:39 | Makarios | 155563 | ||
Greetings Mommapbs, Yes, my wife and I are doing very well! :-) I would agree with what DocTrinsograce has written earlier. I believe that the answer to your question lies in Matthew 25:32-46.. Those who KNEW Christ will be saved (34-40), while those who did not know Him will be condemned (41-45). So my answer would be an affirmative "Yes"; that unbelief, or apostasy, is what God finds so unforgivable: the beginning and end, the root of all sin. Blasphemy against God also stems from unbelief and rebellion. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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227 | Are we to pray to the holy spirit? | Matt 6:9 | Makarios | 155174 | ||
Greetings Ray, My friend, I have supported you in the past and looked the other way frequently when I have not quite agreed with you. I have shown you friendship here on the Forum, discussing capitalization and various things. I have given you the benefit of the doubt. But, in this case, it seems that you are attempting to correct a very Biblically based, straight-forward answer that has been offered by our fellow Forum member, Hank. Do you mean to disagree with Hank's quote of Matthew 6:9? If so, please explain. Unfortunately, your post was not very clear in supporting "I am surprised at Hank's answer to you." I probably would have written something very much akin to what Hank wrote. Do you mean to debate the Tri-unity of God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit? Or are you preaching the heresy of Oneness? Please kindly and clearly explain what your views are and why it was necessary to digress with what Hank has written. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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228 | How should we take the Bible? | Bible general Archive 2 | Makarios | 154960 | ||
Greetings Doc, No apology needed, my friend! Your contributions are also well worth reading! Your Brother in Christ, Makarios |
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229 | was dust meaning dirt or mud? | Gen 2:7 | Makarios | 154827 | ||
Hi Ray! What an excellent addition with Job 33:4! That really is the point, isn't it - that man's value is not in the physical components of the body, but in the quality of life which forms his soul! What an excellent and encouraging post, taken straight from one of our favorites - MacArthur's notes.. THAT was the post of the day! Many blessings to you, dear friend! Makarios |
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230 | was dust meaning dirt or mud? | Gen 2:7 | Makarios | 154824 | ||
Now you've got me there, Hank! ;-) (Her name was Sugar?? Really? ;-) Many blessings to you also! | ||||||
231 | Made everything for its own purpose? | Prov 16:7 | Makarios | 154259 | ||
Greetings Ray, Option #2 was closer to the mark at what was originally intended, but I also like Option #1A. :) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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232 | Theological Term: Ordo Salutis | Rom 8:31 | Makarios | 151263 | ||
Excellent post, DocTrinsograce! - Makarios |
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233 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Makarios | 151137 | ||
Greetings JRM, Acts 2 gives us the best example in scripture of how speaking in tongues could excite or impress a person who does not believe in the Gospel. If perhaps a believer would speak to a traveling person who does not already believe in his or her own language, then it would be most impressive indeed to the traveler - to meet a person who could speak in their language. That fact alone would catch a person's attention, and hopefully pave the way for the person to be receptive enough to receive the Gospel message through the believer. And if the traveler then believed, then the Gospel would spread through the traveler (Acts 8:39). On the other hand, an interpreter of the tongues is needed in the church, if the members do indeed speak in tongues during worship. When tongues is spoken in the church, it is used for the edification of the church as a whole, not just for any one person. Therefore, whenever there is someone in the church who speaks in a tongue, then there also must be an interpreter (1 Cor. 14:26-28), since the spoken message must be a message that edifies the whole body, rather than just the one. If only one is edified and there is no clarification through interpretation, then only confusion results, since tongues are spoken by one person at a time. But in church, all things are (or should be) done for the edification of the whole, rather than just the one. And if unbelievers were to join believers when even the believers are confused, then it would be discrediting to the believers and to the message that we are attempting to give to the unbelievers. With unbelievers, we must present the Gospel message as clearly as possible. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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234 | Looking for the "Roman's Road" to sal... | Romans | Makarios | 143590 | ||
Wow Kalos! I like the "Jerusalem Road", being an Old Testament counterpart to the "Romans Road!" Excellent find! I'll have to use it.. :) Makarios |
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235 | Is the UPC a Christian Church? | Matt 24:11 | Makarios | 142976 | ||
Greetings Jcsav, You ask: "If the Father was not made flesh. Then Jesus could not have fully been God. If he need the Father and the Holy Ghost to Be God. And If he Didn't then why can't I call God by His Name "Jesus"? If I understand your syntax correctly, you ask: 'How can Jesus be God when neither the Father nor the Spirit were made flesh?' I hope that I am correct in interpreting your Question, and I will proceed on that basis. The Father never became fully man like Jesus did. In fact, the Father sent the Son (Jesus) to be made flesh (John 3:16-17; Daniel 7:13-14). Only Jesus became fully man, and was fully man and fully God at the same time (Colossians 2:9). Hebrews 2:14-15 gives us the reason that Jesus had to become a man. To deny that Jesus was not God because He became a man is to put oneself outside the pale of orthodoxy (see 1 John 4:2,3) and into heresy. There are innumerable passages in the New Testament that confirm Christ's full humanity, but scripture also is clear that Jesus never surrendered any aspect of His deity when He became fully man. In no way was Jesus "less than" God because of the Incarnation. Also, Jesus was the ONLY Person of the Godhead that experienced full humanity. God the Father was not required to become fully man and neither did the Holy Spirit have to become fully man for Jesus to become fully man, as He did. Nowhere in scripture does it say that God the Father and God the Holy Spirit were ever required to become, or ever became, fully human Themselves. And scripture does not say that Jesus was not fully God while He walked on earth in human form. I pray that this helps, Makarios |
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236 | Is the UPC a Christian Church? | Matt 24:11 | Makarios | 142901 | ||
Greetings again Jcsav, In the NASB, Matthew 28:19 reads: "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." It is highly revealing that the word "name" is singular in the Greek, indicating that there is one God, but there are three distinct Persons within the Godhead- the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Jesus does not say, "into the names [plural] of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit," or what is its virtual equivalent: "into the name of the Father, and into the name of the Son, and into the name of the Holy Spirit," as if we had to deal with three separate Beings. Nor does He say, "into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit," (omitting the three recurring articles), as if "the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit" might be taken as merely three designations of a single person. What He does say is this: "into the name [singular] of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," first asserting the unity of the three by combining them all within the bounds of the single Name, and then throwing into emphasis the distinctness of each by introducing them in turn with the repeated article. Very clearly, then, scripture affirms that there is one God, but within the unity of the Godhead, there are three coequal and coeternal Persons- the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Most Christians today acknowledge that the term "person" is an imperfect expression of what the Bible communicates. Certainly, in God there are not three separate individuals such as Peter, John, and Matthew who have different characteristics, but only personal self-distinctions within the Godhead. In applying the term "person" to God, the word is used in a distinctive sense from its normal use in relation to human beings. Though each member of the Godhead manifests the qualities of personality, such as intellect, sensibility, and will, they do not act independently as three separate human beings would act. Nevertheless, the Persons involved in the Tri-unity of God are expressed in scripture as "I," "Thou," "He," and they address each other as individuals and manifest their individuality in some personal acts. Hence, the Father, the Son, and Holy Spirit are "persons" in the sense that each has the personal attributes of mind, emotions, and will, and each of the three is aware of the others, speaks to the others, and carries on a loving relationship with the others. If you find this difficult to comprehend, you are in good company. One day, Augustine was walking along the beach when he saw a young boy with a bucket, running back and forth to pour water into a little hole. Augustine asked, "What are you doing?" The boy replied, "I'm trying to put the ocean into this hole." Augustine smiled, recognizing the utter futility of what the boy was attempting to do. After pondering the boy's words for a few moments, however, Augustine came to a sudden realization. He realized that he had been trying to put an infinite God into his finite mind. It can't be done. We can accept God's revelation to us that He is triune in nature and that He has infinite perfections. But with our finite minds we cannot fully understand everything about God. Our God is an awesome God! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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237 | Is the UPC a Christian Church? | Matt 24:11 | Makarios | 142898 | ||
Greetings Jcsav, In John 14:28 Jesus said, "If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." Jesus is not speaking in this verse about His nature or His essential being (Christ had earlier said "I and the Father are one" in this regard- John 10:30) but is rather speaking of His lowly position in the Incarnation. The Athanasian Creed affirms that Christ is "equal to the Father as touching his Godhood and inferior to the Father as touching his manhood." The Father was seated upon the throne of highest majesty in heaven; the brightness of His glory was uneclipsed as He was surrounded by hosts of holy beings perpetually worshiping Him with uninterrupted praise. Far different was it with His incarnate Son-despised and rejected of men, surrounded by implacable enemies, and soon to be nailed to a criminal's cross. It is from this perspective that Jesus could say that the Father is "greater" than Him. In 1 Corinthians 11:3 we read, "Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God." A close examination of this verse shows that it had nothing to do with inferiority or superiority of one person over another; rather, it has to do with patterns of authority. Notice that Paul says the man is the head of the woman, even though men and women are utterly equal in their essential nature. Men and women are both human and both are created in God's image (Genesis 1:26-28). As well, they are said to be "one" in Christ (Galatians 3:28). These verses, taken with 1 Corinthians 11:3, show us that equality of being and social hierarchy are not mutually exclusive. Even though men and women are completely equal in terms of their nature, there is nevertheless a functional hierarchy that exists between them. In the same way, Christ and the Father are utterly equal in their divine being (Jesus said "I and the Father are one"- John 10:30), though Jesus is functionally under the Father's headship (1 Corinthians 11:3). There is no contradiction in affirming both an equality of being and a functional subordination among the persons in the Godhead. Christ in His divine nature is fully equal to the Father, though relationally (or functionally) He is subordinate or submissive to the Father. This verse in no way implies that Jesus is less than God. In John 10:30, Jesus was claiming deity, that He and the Father "are one." While the Greek word for "one" (hen) by itself does not have to refer to more than unity of purpose, the context of John 10 is clear that much more than this is meant in terms of Jesus and the Father. How do we know this? For one thing, the Jewish leaders immediately picked up stones to put Jesus to death. They understood Jesus to be claiming to be God in an unqualified sense. Indeed, according to verse 33, the Jews said: "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God" (NASB). The penalty for blasphemy, according to Old Testament law, is death by stoning. Jesus didn't respond by saying, "Oh, no, you've got it all wrong. I wasn't claiming to be God. I was just claiming to have a unity of purpose." Even the Jews claimed to have a unity of purpose with God. They wouldn't have tried to stone Jesus for that. They understood Jesus as He intended to be understood- they understood Him to be claiming deity. At the same time, the Father is considered by Jesus as someone other than Himself more than 200 times in the New Testament. Over 50 times in the New Testament, the Father and Son are seen to be distinct within the same verse (Ex: Romans 15:6; 2 Cor. 1:4; Gal. 1:2,3; Phil. 2:10,11; 1 John 2:1; 2 John 3). Blessings to you, Makarios |
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238 | Is the UPC a Christian Church? | Matt 24:11 | Makarios | 142763 | ||
Greetings Jcsav, You are correct: It is not the Father who became flesh, but the Son, Jesus. Jesus and the Father are different Persons in the Tri-unity of the Godhead. Romans 8:3 "For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh," John 6:53 "So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves." Romans 1:3 "concerning His Son, who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh," Blessings to you, Makarios |
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239 | Is the UPC a Christian Church? | Matt 24:11 | Makarios | 142674 | ||
Greetings Jcsav, I appreciate your response, although I disagree with your conclusion, and I believe that the Bible supports my argument. You are correct in saying that the Bible gives evidence for one God (Isaiah 44:6; 46:9). Also, the "oneness" of God is emphasized in the New Testament: For example, see 1 Corinthians 8:4, James 2:19, John 5:44, 17:3, Romans 3:29,30, 16:27, Galatians 3:20, Ephesians 4:6, 1 Timothy 2:5. In review, there is only one God, and scripture stresses the fact that God is 'one.' But scripture also makes clear that there are 3 Persons who are called God: The Father - 1 Peter 1:2 The Son (Jesus) - John 20:28; Hebrews 1:8 The Holy Spirit - Acts 5:3,4 All three above are described as omnipresent (everywhere present - John 4:19-24; Matt. 28:20; Psalm 139:7), omniscient (all-knowing - Psalm 139:1,2; Matt. 9:4; 1 Cor. 2:10), omnipotent (all-powerful - 1 Peter 1:5; Matt. 28:18; Rom. 15:19), as 'holy' (Revelation 15:4; Acts 3:14; John 16:7-14), and as eternal (Psalm 90:2; Micah 5:2; John 1:2; Rev. 1:8,17; Hebrews 9:14), and each is described as the 'truth' (John 14:6,7; Rev. 3:7; 1 John 5:6). All three above have all of the qualities that scripture explicitly specifies as being the qualities of God. Therefore, does this mean that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are one in the same? No. In applying the term "Person" to God, the word is used in a distinctive sense from its normal use in relation to human beings. Though each member of the Godhead also manifests the qualities of personality, such as intellect, sensibility, and will, they do not act independently as three separate human individuals would act. Nevertheless, the Persons involved in the Trinity are expressed in such terms as "I", "Thou," "He," and the Persons of the Godhead address each other as individuals and communicate with each other. Scripture tells us that the Father sent the Son (John 3:16,17), the Father and Son love each other (John 5:20), and the Father and Son speak to each other (John 8:47; 11:41,42). Moreover, the Father knows the Son and the Son knows the Father (John 10:15), and Jesus is our advocate with the Father (1 John 2:1). Further, it is clear that Jesus is not the Holy Spirit, for the Holy Spirit descended upon Jesus at His baptism (Luke 3:22). The Holy Spirit is said to be another comforter (John 14:16). Jesus sent the Holy Spirit (John 15:26). And the Holy Spirit seeks to glorify Jesus (John 16:13,14). In view of all of the above scripture, it is impossible to argue that God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit are not three, separate, individual Persons that have existed before the creation of the world (John 17:24) and who are one God. In any case, Matthew 28:19 and 2 Corinthians 13:14 are great passages that prove that the doctrine of the Trinity is, in fact, a biblical doctrine. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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240 | Is the UPC a Christian Church? | Matt 24:11 | Makarios | 142671 | ||
Greetings Hank, Yes, we have begun to take such responses in stride.. :) Perhaps we could refer this correspondent to another thread in which we have fought this battle before.. Oh well, convince them one at a time, or at least try to, I guess.. Blessings to you dear Brother! Makarios |
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