Results 221 - 240 of 248
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Makarios Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
221 | David's son named after the prophet? | 1 Chr 14:4 | Makarios | 5584 | ||
In 1 Chronicles 14:3-7, we see a listing of the children of King David. Among those is one named Nathan. Did David name his son Nathan after Nathan the prophet? Nathan the prophet is the one who revealed to him his sin with Bathsheba and was a primary source of counselling for King David. | ||||||
222 | Should homosexuals be ordained? | Rom 1:27 | Makarios | 5582 | ||
Should homosexuals be ordained as pastors and church leaders in light of Romans 1:24-27 and other verses that condemn homosexuality? | ||||||
223 | Which method of baptism Bible supported? | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 5579 | ||
As I seek to become rebaptized this summer, the church that I attend uses the method of immersion to baptise. I have seen sprinkling, pouring, and immersion baptisms take place. According to scripture, is there are 'right' way to be baptised? Which way (immersion, sprinking, pouring) is best according to scripture? | ||||||
224 | Is infant baptism Biblical? | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 5576 | ||
Is infant baptism Biblical? I was baptized as an infant and I am seeking to become rebaptized this summer at a Conservative Mennonite Church adhering to Anabaptist roots. Since I was baptized as an infant and had no clue whatsoever what was going on when it happened, should I seek to be rebaptized? | ||||||
225 | Elder must be 'the husband of one wife'? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Makarios | 5573 | ||
What does this verse (1 Tim. 3:2) mean when it says an elder of the church must be 'the husband of but one wife'? Does it mean that the elder must be married only once (no marriage is allowed even if the wife dies), or that the elder must be married to one wife at a time (polygamy is forbidden), a single person cannot be an elder in the church, or the elder must prove to be faithful to his wife, being a 'one-woman man' ? | ||||||
226 | Is Beelzebul or Baalzebub Satan? | Matt 12:27 | Makarios | 5569 | ||
Is Beelzebul or Baalzebub really another name for satan or just the god of Ekron in 2 Kings 1:2,16? Beelzebul is also referenced in Luke 11:15. | ||||||
227 | Is Jesus the 'Eternal Father'? | Is 9:6 | Makarios | 5154 | ||
Does the fact that Jesus is called "Eternal Father" in Isaiah 9:6 mean that Jesus is the Father?No, Jesus is not the Father. As we interpret the meaning of the phrase "Eternal Father" in reference to Christ, it is critical to keep in mind what other Scriptures have to say about the distinction between the Father and the Son. The Father is considered by Jesus as someone other than Himself more than 200 times in the New Testament. Over 50 times (in the NT) the Father and Son are seen to be distinct within the same verse (for example: Rom. 15:6, 2 Cor. 1:4, Gal. 1:2-3, Phil. 2:10-11, 1 John 2:1, 2 John 3). If the Father and the Son are distinct, then in what sense is Jesus the "Eternal Father"? One explanation is that this phrase is better translated 'Father of eternity', and carries the meaning "possessor of eternity." Father of eternity is here used in accordance with a custom usual in Hebrew and in Arabic, where he who possesses a thing is called the father of it. Thus, the father of strength means strong; the father of knowledge, intelligent; the father of glory, glorious. According to this common usage, the meaning of Father of eternity in Isaiah 9:6 is 'eternal'. Christ as the "Father of eternity" is an eternal being. The Targum- a simplified paraphrase of the Old Testament Scriptures utilized by the ancient Jews- rendered Isaiah 9:6: "His name has been called from of old, Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, He who lives forever...." Clearly, the ancient Jews considered the phrase Father of eternity as indicating the eternality of the Messiah. Also, this refers to Christ's divine quality as an enduring, compassionate provider and protector (see also Isaiah 40:9-11). Scripture is clear that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are distinct persons. Scripture tells us that the Father sent the Son (John 3:16-17), the Father and Son love each other (John 5:20), and the Father and Son speak to each other (John 8:47, 11:41, 42). Moreover, the Father knows the Son and the Son knows the Father (John 10:15), and Jesus is our advocate with the Father (1 John 2:1).Also, it is clear that Jesus is not the Holy Spirit, for the Holy Spirit descended upon Jesus at His baptism (Luke 3:22). The Holy Spirit is said to be another comforter (John 14:16). Jesus sent the Holy Spirit (John 15:26). And the Holy Spirit seeks to glorify Jesus (John 16:13-14). In view of these facts, it is impossible to argue that Jesus is the Father and the Holy Spirit.Does John 10:30 teach that Jesus and the Father are the same person? No. Jesus affirmed, "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30). This verse does not mean that Jesus and the Father are one and the same person. We know this to be true because in the phrase, "I and the Father are one," a first person plural- "we are" (esmen in the Greek)- is used. The verse literally reads from the Greek, "I and the Father we are one." If Jesus intended to say that He and the Father were one person, He certainly would not have used the first person plural, which clearly implies two persons. Furthermore, the Greek word for "one" (hen) in this verse refers not to personal unity (that is, the idea that the Father and Son are one person) but to unity of essence or nature (that is, that the Father and Son have the same divine nature). This is evident in the fact that the form of the word in the Greek is neuter, not masculine. Further, the verses that immediately precede and follow John 10:30 distinguish Jesus from the Father (John 10:25,29,36,38). Jesus is the perfect revelation of the Father (John 1:18). We also know that 2 Corinthians 3:17 does not prove that Jesus is the Holy Spirit. Just earlier, in vv. 3-6, the apostle Paul clearly distinguishes between Jesus and the Holy Spirit. Moreover, the whole of Scripture indicates that Jesus is not the Holy Spirit.Sources: NASB Study Bible (Zondervan), Hasting's Dictionary of the Bible (Hendrickson), Matthew Henry's Unabridged Commentary, Strong's Concordance, "The Complete Book of Bible Answers" by Ron Rhodes, "Evidence Demands a Verdict" by Josh McDowell. | ||||||
228 | Strategic Spiritual Warfare anyone? | Dan 10:13 | Makarios | 5125 | ||
Does anyone have any stories or would like to shed some light on Strategic Level Spiritual Warfare? Based on Dan. 10:13, I believe that this concept does have biblical support. Please let me know if you have been engaged in this and have beheld certain experiences. | ||||||
229 | How should be interpret Joshua 10:12-14? | Josh 10:12 | Makarios | 5107 | ||
How are we to interpret Joshua 10:12-14 when Joshua asks the Lord to make the sun 'stand still'? Did God prolong the day by some refraction of the sun's rays? I think that God stopped the earth's rotation on its axis. I also think it is interesting that the Amorites worshiped the sun and the moon as deities. Therefore, the TRUE God defeated them through their own 'deities'.. | ||||||
230 | Christ's Birth revealed to Astrologers? | Matt 2:1 | Makarios | 5106 | ||
Why would God give special revelation concerning Christ's birth to astrologers- the Magi in Matthew 2:1,2? Tradition tells us that these three were Kings. We might loosely associate them today to specialists in Astronomy, since they gained knowledge by observing the movement and positions of stars. I do not believe that the Magi were occultic seers or sorcerers in the sense that today's astrologers often are. "We Three Kings" is a very popular hymn that is sung around Christmas. I wonder why God would give special revelation to astrologers (the Magi).. | ||||||
231 | Strategic spiritual warfare successful? | Dan 10:13 | Makarios | 5105 | ||
The concept of hostile angels associated with territories has biblical support in Dan. 10:13, 20, and 21. What is known as "Strategic-Level Spiritual Warfare" is viewed as an 'attack' through prayer and fasting that Christians can use to help oust demon spirits from their strongholds over cities or regions. First of all, if you conclude that we can engage territorial spirits through prayer, then we have an approach through SLSW (or Strategic Level Spiritual Warfare). The approach is three-fold: (1) discern the territorial spirits assigned to the city, (2) deal with the corporate sin of a city or area, and (3) engage in aggressive "warfare prayer" agaist the territorial spirits.. Here is more scripture to support the idea of demons being assigned to certain areas or nations: Deut. 32:8, 17; Psalm 82:1-8, 96:5, 106:37-38; Isaiah 24:21; Rev. 2, 12). If you believe in demons having control of areas or regions, then has any pastor or church had success with ousting these spirits and winning these areas or regions for God? Please tell me your stories! | ||||||
232 | Is being "slain in the spirit" biblical? | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 5104 | ||
Is the practice of being 'slain in the spirit' a biblical practice? No, I really don't think it is. In fact, not only is the term not in the Bible, the experience is not in the Bible either. There are many examples in Scripture of human beings falling to their knees as they witness the incredible glory of God. This is what happened to the apostle John (Rev. 1). But the idea of being touched by a human being who is "anointed" by the Spirit and then being knocked cold is not a biblical phenomena.How are we to explain these experiences? It may be a psychological or emotional phenomena. Someone may so strongly expect to be knocked cold by the Spirit thought to be present in the anointed preacher that when the preacher touches him or her, down he or she goes. Sociologists have noted that this type of experience is actually common to many religions. There's also the possibility that the powers of darkness may be involved in this experience (2 Thess. 2:9). Many who believe in being 'slain in the spirit' like to cite certain passages such as Genesis 15:12-21, Numbers 24:4, 1 Samuel 19:20, and Matthew 17:6. But in every case they are reading their own meaning into the text instead of drawing the meaning out of the text. These passages in context offer no support for the idea of being 'slain in the spirit'. | ||||||
233 | How close can we get to God? | Is 62:5 | Makarios | 4210 | ||
Is there a limit on how close we can come to know God or to be filled with His presence? I am a single man, but I am already married to our Lord Jesus, being in a constant and complete walk with Him where He experiences everything that I experience in life and every question that I have I seek His answer first.. I believe that we must be intimate with our Lord and Savior before we can expect to achieve intimacy with someone else in a marriage relationship. Now if we are 'married' to Christ, then are there any bounds to knowing Him? I know that we must die, we must be apart from these sinful, corruptible bodies of ours so that we will be changed into incorruptible bodies upon the return of our Lord since no man can see God in heaven and yet live. But really, are there any limitations? The limitations- how we quench the Holy Spirit or our relationship with Jesus- all depends on us and how much control over our lives that we are willing to sacrifice over to Him. We must replace our desires for a desire for real solid faith and holiness. We must desire Him and the Holy Spirit. Then, when we are washed whiter than snow (Isaiah 1:18-20), we can continue to be 'recklessly abandoned unto God'.. Are there any other thoughts on just how close we can get to God? | ||||||
234 | Are the Seven Deadly Sins in the Bible? | Prov 6:16 | Makarios | 4185 | ||
Are the Seven Deadly Sins mentioned in the Bible? The Seven Deadly Sins are Pride, Greed, Envy, Anger, Lust, Gluttony, and Sloth. I believe that they are mentioned in the Bible, but not all together in one place. Proverbs 6:16 comes the closest to mentioning 'Seven Deadly Sins'.. I believe that each one is independently condemned in the Bible at least once.. Pride (1 Pet. 5:5), Greed (1 Tim. 6:10), Envy (Rom. 13:13), Anger (Eph. 4:31), Lust (Matt. 5:28), Gluttony (Prov. 23:20-21), and Sloth (Prov. 18:9).. Is every sin that man commits an 'offshoot' or can be traced back to one of these basic, deadly sins? It is also argued that the counterparts for the Seven Deadly Sins are Humility (Phil. 2:3) for Pride, Contentment (Psalm 34:10) for Greed, Love (1 Cor. 13) for Envy, Forgiveness (1 John 1:9) for Anger, Purity (Psalm 119:9) for Lust, Self-Control (Rom. 12:1) for Gluttony, and Diligence (Prov. 12:24) for Sloth. The Seven Deadly Sins are not mentioned as such in the Bible, but I believe that these are the 'root' sins in which all others come.. Any thoughts? | ||||||
235 | Are there degrees of punishment in hell? | Luke 12:47 | Makarios | 4116 | ||
Are there degrees of punishment in hell? Luke 12:47,48 as well as Matthew 10:15; 16:27; Revelation 20:12,13; 22:12 lead me to believe that there are degrees of punishment in hell.. | ||||||
236 | Three different heavens in the Bible? | 2 Cor 12:2 | Makarios | 4115 | ||
The Scriptures make reference to the "third heaven" in 2 Cor. 12:2, which is the ineffable and glorious dwelling place of God in all His glory. It is called the "heaven of heavens" (Nehemiah 9:6 NASB) and the "highest heaven" (1 Kings 8:27; 2 Chronicles 2:6).If God's abode is the 'third' heaven, then what are the first and second heavens? Scripture gives us the answer: The first heaven is the earth's atmosphere (Job 35:5). The second heaven is the stellar universe (Genesis 1:17; Deut. 17:3).. Any other thoughts? | ||||||
237 | Did Hezekiah make the right choice? | 2 Kin 20:3 | Makarios | 4088 | ||
Did Hezekiah really make the right decision in 2 Kings 20:3 by pleading for his life instead of putting his life in God's hands? During the fifteen years (the time that God gave him because of his plea) he made a mistake by showing all his treasure to Babylonian envoys (2 Kings 20:12-19) and his twelve year old son Manasseh (an evil king) became king of Judah in his place.. | ||||||
238 | Did Jephthah sacrifice his daughter? | Judg 11:31 | Makarios | 4061 | ||
In Judges 11:29-40, did Jephthah really offer his daughter to the Lord as a sacrifice? | ||||||
239 | I just bought an ASV (1901)! | Bible general Archive 1 | Makarios | 4066 | ||
Hey everyone, I just bought an ASV! The 1901 American Standard Version is the predecessor or forerunner of our beloved New American Standard Bible. It is respected as a very literal translation like the NASB. If you are interested in how I was able to order an ASV, then e-mail me at archangel76@crosswalkmail.com. I believe that there is a restriction on this forum for advertising, and I have not posted any further info as to compromise that restriction. Thanks! | ||||||
240 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 3840 | ||
Right on Ron! I most certainly agree with you! To study the use of the word 'sons' in Genesis 6:4, I went straight to the New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance which says that the word 'sons' used in Gen. 6:4 is the Hebrew word 'ben' (or son- the builder of a family name).. It is commonly perceived that Moses wrote the book of Genesis, and he used the word 'sons' to describe the Godly line of Seth. The author of Job is unknown, although the author was an Israelite. And Moses could not have written the book of Job since he was long since dead (Deut. 34) at the time of Job. But the author of Job used 'sons' of God to refer to angels in heaven with satan among them. So we have established that the word 'sons' that is used in Gen. 6:4 does not directly refer to angels and that the writers of Genesis and Job (while being inspired by the same Holy Spirit) used the same word to describe men in one verse and angels in another. (Genesis 6:4 and Job 1:6) I hope that this helps to clarify many things. | ||||||
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