Results 21 - 40 of 516
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: ebrain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187939 | ||
Continuation part 1. Remember, the Thessalonians had been led astray by the false teaching (2:2-3) that the Day of the Lord had already come. This was confusing because Paul offered great hope, in the first letter, of a departure to be with Christ and a rescue from god's wrath. Now a letter purporting to be from Paul seems to say that they would first have to go through the Day of the Lord. Paul then clarified his prior teaching by emphasizing that they had no need to worry. They could again be comforted because the departure he had discussed in his first letter, and in his teaching while with them, was still the truth. The departure of Christians to be with Christ, and the subsequent revelation of the lawless one, Paul argues, is proof that the Day of the Lord had not begun as they had thought. This understanding of apostasia makes much more sense than the view that they are to be comforted (v. 2) because a defection from the faith must precede the Day of the Lord. The entire second chapter (as well as 1 Thessalonians 4:18; 5:11) serves to comfort (see vv. 2, 3, 17), supplied by a reassurance of Christ's coming as taught in his first letter.[10] Departure and The Restrainer Since pretribulationists believe that the restrainer mentioned in verses 6 and 7 is the Holy Spirit and teaches a pre-trib rapture, then it should not be surprising to see that there is a similar progression of thought in the progression of verse 3. Allan MacRae, president of Faith Theological Seminary in a letter to Schuyler English has said the following concerning this matter: I wonder if you have noticed the striking parallel between this verse and verses 7-8, a little further down. According to your suggestion verse 3 mentions the departure of the church as coming first, and then tells of the revealing of the man of sin. In verses 7 and 8 we find the identical sequence. Verse 7 tells of the removal of the Church; verse 8 says: "And then shall that Wicked be revealed." Thus close examination of the passage shows an inner unity and coherence, if we take the word apostasia in its general sense of "departure," while a superficial examination would easily lead to an erroneous interpretation as "falling away" because of the proximity of the mention of the man of sin.[11] Kenneth Wuest, a Greek scholar from Moody Bible Institute added the following contextual support to taking apostasia as a physical departure: But then hee apostasia of which Paul is speaking, precedes the revelation of Antichrist in his true identity, and is to katechon that which holds back his revelation (2:6). The hee apostasia, therefore, cannot be either a general apostasy in Christendom which does precede the coming of Antichrist, nor can it be the particular apostasy which is the result of his activities in making himself the alone object of worship. Furthermore, that which holds back his revelation (vs. 3) is vitally connected with hoo katechoon (vs. 7), He who holds back the same event. The latter is, in my opinion, the Holy Spirit and His activities in the Church. All of which means that I am driven to the inescapable conclusion that the hee apostasia (vs. 3) refers to the Rapture of the Church which precedes the Day of the Lord, and holds back the revelation of the Man of Sin who ushers in the world-aspect of that period.[12] Conclusion The fact that apostasia most likely has the meaning of physical departure is a clear support for pretribulationism. If this is true, (Dr. Tim LaHaye and I believe that it is), then it means that a clear prophetic sequence is laid out by Paul early in his Apostolic ministry. Paul teaches in 2 Thessalonians 2 that the rapture will occur first, before the Day of the Lord commences. It is not until after the beginning of the Day of the Lord that the Antichrist is released, resulting in the events described by him in chapter 2 of 2 Thessalonians. This is the only interpretation that provides hope for a discomforted people. Maranatha! |
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22 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187938 | ||
Hi Vincent. Further to my previous post, which was the first part of an article given by Dr.Thomas Ice. I only posted the first part, as I thiught it would be sufficient to show that the Greek word translated "Apostasy", can have more than one meaning, as it does not appear to have done so I am now posting the rest of this article, which has been taken from the web site. "The pre-Trib Research Center". Translation History The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either "departure" or "departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).[5] This supports the notion that the word truly means "departure." In fact, Jerome's Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of a.d. 400 renders apostasia with the "word discessio, meaning 'departure.'"[6] Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of "departure"? Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as "falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as "departure." No good reason was ever given. The Use of the Article It is important to note that Paul uses a definite article with the noun apostasia. What does this mean? Davey notes the following: Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article reference is being made to something in particular. In II Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.[7] Dr. Lewis provides a likely answer when he notes that the definite article serves to make a word distinct and draw attention to it. In this instance he believes that its purpose is "to denote a previous reference." "The departure Paul previously referred to was 'our being gathered to him' (v. 1) and our being 'caught up' with the Lord and the raptured dead in the clouds (1 Thess. 4:17)," notes Dr. Lewis. The "departure" was something that Paul and his readers clearly had a mutual understanding about. Paul says in verse 5, "Do you not remember that while I was still with you, I was telling you these things?" The use of the definite article would also support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernable event. A physical departure, like the rapture would fit just such a notion. However, the New Testament teaches that apostasy had already arrived in the first century (cf. Acts 20:27-32; 1 Tim. 4:1-5; 2 Tim. 3:1-9; 2 Pet. 2:1-3; Jude 3-4, 17-21) and thus, such a process would not denote a clear event as demanded by the language of this passage. Understanding departure as the rapture would satisfy the nuance of this text. E. Schuyler English explains as follows: Again, how would the Thessalonians, or Christians in any century since, be qualified to recognize the apostasy when it should come, assuming, simply for the sake of this inquiry, that the Church might be on earth when it does come? There has been apostasy from God, rebellion against Him, since time began.[9] Whatever Paul is referring to in his reference to "the departure," was something that both the Thessalonian believers and he had discussed in-depth previously. When we examine Paul's first letter to the Thessalonians, he never mentions the doctrine of apostasy, however, virtually every chapter in that epistle speaks of the rapture (cf. 1:9-10; 2:19; probably 3:13; 4:13-17; 5:1-11). In these passages, Paul has used a variety of Greek terms to describe the rapture. It should not be surprising that he uses another term to reference the rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3. Dr. House tells us: To be continued. |
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23 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187917 | ||
Hi Tim. Thank you for your post, which I find most helpful. have a look at the one I posted today to Mark at 8.55 am, and let me have your comments. Edwin. |
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24 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187907 | ||
Thank you Mark for all your posts on this subject, perhaps you could have a look at what follows, and let me have your comments. Every blessing Edwin. Regarding this passage of Scripture, I would like to suggest the following scenario. At the time of our Lords death, or shortly thereafter, verse 52 happened, but that verse 53 did not occur until after our Lord's resurrection, my reason for saying this is influenced by an experience I had many years ago when I regained consciousness in Hospital, some nine days after being badly injured in a road crash. My first thoughts were, where am I? what is this place? what am I doing here? where are my family, do they know?.. what day is it? I also wanted something to drink, and eat,, and so on. It must have been something like that for the saints who were raised on that day. We do not know where the graves were, they could have been some distance away from the holy city, it was also only about three hours, or less from the start of the Sabbath, and the imposition of "the Sabbath days journey". You will know that when our Lord Jesus raised people back from the dead, that He said "give them something to eat", also when He Himself rose from death, that one of the first things He did was to ask for food. When a saint came out of his grave, it would not be long before he would meet someone, and be given answers to any questions he might ask. I am sure that uppermost in his mind would be a desire to be reunited with his family, his loved ones, he would most likely to want food, and drink. You will also know that when ever Jesus cleansed a leper, He told him to go and show himself to the Priests, it is not unlikely in my opinion that the those with whom the saint made contact suggested that he do the same, but not of course until after the Sabbath.. Jesus as we know rose very early on the morning of the first day of the new week, much before, I feel certain, the time the saints went into the holy city. Now we have the problem of the "first fruits", have a look please at Rom 8:23 And not only this, but also we ourselves, having the first fruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting eagerly for our adoption as sons, the redemption of our body. 1 Cor 15:20 But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep. 1 Cor 15:23 But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ's at His coming, It is clear to me that this can only refer to Christians, and not the saints described above, as they were OT, saints, the same as john the baptist who never claimed to be part of the bride of Christ, but a friend of the bridegroom. |
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25 | E-Security only for true believers? | Matt 7:21 | ebrain | 187845 | ||
Hello again Lookn4ward2Heavn. You have asked two questions: Firstly. "Are not professing to be a Christian and assurance of final salvation two different things?" Answer. No they are not, for example you yourself told us, "I still hold to be true today as a Christian", and you also refer to yourself as, "Lookn4ward2Heavn". Now tell me, how can you be "looking forward to heaven", if you have no assurance? Secondly. "Can one be a Christian and yet not have absolute and infallible assurance of final salvation?" Answer. Again no, see answer to your first question above. Tell me how could you possibly be "looking forward to heaven", if you have no absolute and infallible assurance of final salvation?" ebrain. |
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26 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187687 | ||
Hi Mark. Thank you for your post, as allways both wise, and prudent, it's a joy to have your input. Have a look at what follows, and let me have your comments. A contribution to the difficulty in understanding verse 53, is found in the translation from the Greek. There are no capital letters in that language, and therefore, this verse has to be rendered as, Mat 27:53 and coming out of the tombs after his resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many. You will note that the personal pronoun "his", is not capitalized, and although, it could refer to the resurrection of Jesus, it could equally well refer to the saints who were raised. Using the "Blue Letter Bible", I have looked at 12 different English translations and have found that 8 of them prefer, "his resurrection", they are. KJV, ESV, RSV, ASV, YOUNGS, DARBYS, WEBSTERS, and HNV, whereas only 4 of them, NKJ, NLT, NIV, and NASB, prefer, either "His resurrection", or prefer to identify the person as Jesus. Of these last 4, the NLT, is a paraphrase, and the NIV, leans in the direction of being a paraphrase, and is not considered by many Bible scholars to be a good translation. Another point worth considering is that there are at least 5 other examples given in Scripture of dead persons being raised back to life again before the resurrection of our Lord Jesus. ebrain. |
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27 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187673 | ||
Thank you Psalm 25 for your answer, perhaps what is written bellow will help you to see my problem. Matt 27:51 And behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth shook and the rocks were split. Matt 27:52 The tombs were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; Matt 28:2 And behold, a severe earthquake had occurred, for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven and came and rolled away the stone and sat upon it. Have a look at the verses above, and tell me do you think that the "severs earthquake". referred to in verse 2 of Ch 28, is the same one described as "the earth shook", in verse 51 of Ch 27, or are they two different events? Also, if the saints were not raised until after Jesus was raised, and assuming that Matthew was describing events in chronological order, then why does he refer to this event as happening at the time of the death of Jesus, and not later on in Ch 28, at the time of our Lord's resurrection? Thank you ebrain. |
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28 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Not Specified | ebrain | 187636 | ||
I have a problem, and would value your help, please read the following verses from the NKJ version, and let me have your advice. Mat 27:50 And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit. Mat 27:51 Then, behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth quaked, and the rocks were split, Mat 27:52 and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; Mat 27:53 and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many. Mat 27:54 So when the centurion and those with him, who were guarding Jesus, saw the earthquake and the things that had happened, they feared greatly, saying, "Truly this was the Son of God!" It seems to me that what is described in all the verses except verse 53, happened immediately upon the death of out Lord Jesus, and that what is described in verse 53 did not take place until His resurrection. In other words, although the saints were raised (made alive) at the time of our Lord's death, they remained in their graves, and did not come out at that time, but waited until Jesus rose, if this so?. Thank you. ebrain. |
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29 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187646 | ||
I have a problem, and would value your help, please read the following verses from the NKJ version, and let me have your advice. Mat 27:50 And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit. Mat 27:51 Then, behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth quaked, and the rocks were split, Mat 27:52 and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; Mat 27:53 and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many. Mat 27:54 So when the centurion and those with him, who were guarding Jesus, saw the earthquake and the things that had happened, they feared greatly, saying, "Truly this was the Son of God!" It seems to me that what is described in all the verses except verse 53, happened immediately upon the death of out Lord Jesus, and that what is described in verse 53 did not take place until His resurrection. In other words, although the saints were raised (made alive) at the time of our Lord's death, they remained in their graves, and did not come out at that time, but waited until Jesus rose, if this so?. Thank you. ebrain. |
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30 | Are we all born with the Holy Spirit? | 1 Cor 2:14 | ebrain | 187532 | ||
Hi manish. Yousaid. Answer: no we never born with the holy spirit caz eph.2:1 says we born in inquity. even david saya i was brought forth in inquity. You are right of course, however, the above verses refer to the first birth, and not to the second birth, for which see bellow. John 3:3 Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God." John 1:13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God. ebrain. |
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31 | Jesus and the "good" theif at the | John 19:30 | ebrain | 187530 | ||
Nothing happened for three days, untill He raised Himself back from the dead, see bellow. John 10:17 "For this reason the Father loves Me, because I lay down My life so that I may take it again. John 10:18 "No one has taken it away from Me, but I lay it down on My own initiative. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This commandment I received from My Father." ebrain. |
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32 | Human minds cannot understand | 1 Cor 2:14 | ebrain | 187528 | ||
Hi kevinl03. I think it likely that the verse of Scripture you require could be. 1 Cor 2:14 But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised. ebrain. |
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33 | Jesus and the "good" theif at the | John 19:30 | ebrain | 187501 | ||
Hi the seeker. Thank you for your question, a similar question was asked me, and bellow is the answer I gave, I hope that it will be of help to you. ebrain. You said. "I heard someone preaching that Jesus went to hell. Please confirm that this is wrong" There are two aspects to this question, both of which I hope to deal with here. Firstly did He who was made sin for us, ( 2Cr 5:21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.) also suffer for us in hell, or was His suffering on the cross sufficient, and secondly in respect of 1st Peter 3:18-20. Firstly. Jhn 19:30 So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, "It is finished!" And bowing His head, He gave up His spirit. "It is finished", "I have completed the work you sent me to do", nothing further is required. English translations of the Hebrew do not always give the understanding that a Jew would have reading the same verses Read all five of the following versions, and see what sort of understanding they give you. Note the second part of a verse will help you to understand the first part of the verse. Psa 16:10 For You will not leave my soul in Sheol, Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption. (ESV) Psa 16:10 For you will not leave my soul among the dead* or allow your godly one* to rot in the grave. (NLT) Psa 16:10 because you will not abandon me to the grave,* nor will you let your Holy One* see decay.(NIV) Psa 16:10 For thou dost not give me up to Sheol, or let thy godly one see the Pit. (RSV) Psa 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul to Sheol; Neither wilt thou suffer thy holy one to see corruption. (ASV) Now just think for a moment, what happens to an unconverted/unsaved person. they die, are put into a grave, where the body sees corruption, and later on they are cast into Hell. In respect of this verse, and using the NIV, I would remove the word "abandon", and in its place put "consign", and that's the only word I would change. Note RSV, uses the expression, "not give me up to", Note. "to Sheol", and not "in Sheol". Secondly. Subject: Christ walking through hell ? Question (short): Christ walking through hell Question (full): Does anyone know where the Bible says Christ walked through hell and that he forgave some people there. Someone asked me recently where this was and I can't find it. I know in the Apostles Creed we say he died and arose on the 3rd day - what was he doing during that time? Can anybody help me with this? Note: There is no Biblical reference that I am aware of that speaks of Christ walking through hell. Just before He died upon the cross Jesus said "it is finished", in other words "nothing further is required". There is a Scripture that some people think indicates this, ie, 1st Peter Ch 3 v 18-20, however, it refers to the Spirit of Christ in Noah proclaiming to the people in Noah's day, (who are now in prison) just what was going to happen to them if they did not repent. See also 2 Peter 2:4-5. I hope this is of some help. The Lord bless you. ebrain. Note. At 1st Peter 3:18, it should read "but made alive by the Spirit", and not in the Spirit. see New King James Version. |
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34 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187491 | ||
Hi Vincent, and thank you for your question. The Greek word from which we get "apostasy", can have more than one meaning, as the material bellow indicates, which I hope will be of help tp you. The Lord bless you. ebrain. Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, -2 Thessalonians 2:3 I believe that there is a strong possibility that 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is speaking of the rapture. What do I mean? Some pretribulationists, like myself, think that the Greek noun apostasia, usually translated "apostasy," is a reference to the rapture and should be translated "departure." Thus, this passage would be saying that the day of the Lord will not come until the rapture comes before it. If apostasia is a reference to a physical departure, then 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is strong evidence for pretribulationism. The Meaning of Apostasia The Greek noun apostasia is only used twice in the New Testament. In addition to 2 Thessalonians 2:3, it occurs in Acts 21:21 where, speaking of Paul, it is said, "that you are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia)Moses." The word is a Greek compound of apo " from" and istemi "stand." Thus, it has the core meaning of "away from" or "departure." The Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon defines apostasia first as "defection, revolt;" then secondly as "departure, disappearance."[1] Gordon Lewis explains how the verb from which the noun apostasia is derived supports the basic meaning of departure in the following: The verb may mean to remove spatially. There is little reason then to deny that the noun can mean such a spatial removal or departure. Since the noun is used only one other time in the New Testament of apostasy from Moses (Acts 21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical meaning is necessarily determined. The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8;13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men(1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).[2] "It is with full assurance of proper exegetical study and with complete confidence in the original languages," concludes Daniel Davey, "that the word meaning of apostasia is defined as departure."[3] Paul Lee Tan adds the following: What precisely does Paul mean when he says that "the falling away" (2:3) must come before the tribulation? The definite article "the" denotes that this will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of Sin. The Greek word for "falling away", taken by itself, does not mean religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean "to fall," as the Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of the word is "to depart." The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which he calls "the departure," and which will occur just before the start of the tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.[4] So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such as departure from the faith. |
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35 | E-Security only for true believers? | Matt 7:21 | ebrain | 187445 | ||
You said. "Before I became a believer, as I was reading the Bible, I came to understand many verses, which understanding I still hold to be true today as a Christian". So, you claim to be a Christian.. Now let it be clearly understood that I am in no way saying that you are not, I have no right to pass such judgment, but if you are a Christian, then you will have no difficulty in answering your own questions as bellow. "The crux of my question is not “am I living and believing what Jesus was actually teaching”, but how does one know for certain that they are saved?" If as you say you are a Christian, then you must be saved, if so, then please tell me how you know for certain that you are saved? "I am discussing genuine faith itself. How does one know that the faith he professes to have in Christ is genuine so as to have obtained salvation?" Yes great, how do you know that your faith is genuine? "Therefore, the question still remains unanswered: How do I know for sure I am saved? Or, another way to put it, how can I be assured now that when I die God will take me?" Yes good question, how do you in fact know for sure that you are saved? ebrain. |
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36 | E-Security only for true believers? | Matt 7:21 | ebrain | 187398 | ||
How does one know? I am sure you will have heard someone when giving their testimony say something like, "Before I became a Christian, I did from time to time open a Bible, but frankly, I just could not understand it,, it didn't seem to make any sense to me, but now that I have become a believer,, It is all together a totally different book". No it is not, it is exactly the same book that it always has been. It is you the reader who have changed, you are a "new creation", you have been "Born again", you are no longer the "natural man", referred to at . 1 Cor 2:14 But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised. Or do you think that the Lord our God who has saved you is powerless to confirm to you the reality of your salvation? ebrain. |
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37 | Jesus preached in hell? | 1 Pet 3:19 | ebrain | 187392 | ||
Hi Ginger G. Following up on Tim Moran's post, let me give you bellow the answer I gave to someone who asked a similar question. You said. "I heard someone preaching that Jesus went to hell. Please confirm that this is wrong" There are two aspects to this question, both of which I hope to deal with here. Firstly did He who was made sin for us, ( 2Cr 5:21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.) also suffer for us in hell, or was His suffering on the cross sufficient, and secondly in respect of 1st Peter 3:18-20. Firstly. Jhn 19:30 So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, "It is finished!" And bowing His head, He gave up His spirit. "It is finished", "I have completed the work you sent me to do", nothing further is required. English translations of the Hebrew do not always give the understanding that a Jew would have reading the same verses Read all five of the following versions, and see what sort of understanding they give you. Note the second part of a verse will help you to understand the first part of the verse. Psa 16:10 For You will not leave my soul in Sheol, Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption. (ESV) Psa 16:10 For you will not leave my soul among the dead* or allow your godly one* to rot in the grave. (NLT) Psa 16:10 because you will not abandon me to the grave,* nor will you let your Holy One* see decay.(NIV) Psa 16:10 For thou dost not give me up to Sheol, or let thy godly one see the Pit. (RSV) Psa 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul to Sheol; Neither wilt thou suffer thy holy one to see corruption. (ASV) Now just think for a moment, what happens to an unconverted/unsaved person. they die, are put into a grave, where the body sees corruption, and later on they are cast into Hell. In respect of this verse, and using the NIV, I would remove the word "abandon", and in its place put "consign", and that's the only word I would change. Note RSV, uses the expression, "not give me up to", Note. "to Sheol", and not "in Sheol". Secondly. Subject: Christ walking through hell ? Question (short): Christ walking through hell Question (full): Does anyone know where the Bible says Christ walked through hell and that he forgave some people there. Someone asked me recently where this was and I can't find it. I know in the Apostles Creed we say he died and arose on the 3rd day - what was he doing during that time? Can anybody help me with this? Note: There is no Biblical reference that I am aware of that speaks of Christ walking through hell. Just before He died upon the cross Jesus said "it is finished", in other words "nothing further is required". There is a Scripture that some people think indicates this, ie, 1st Peter Ch 3 v 18-20, however, it refers to the Spirit of Christ in Noah proclaiming to the people in Noah's day, (who are now in prison) just what was going to happen to them if they did not repent. See also 2 Peter 2:4-5. I hope this is of some help. The Lord bless you. ebrain. Note. At 1st Peter 3:18, it should read "but made alive by the Spirit", and not in the Spirit. see New King James Version. |
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38 | Could and can disciples forgive sins? | John 20:23 | ebrain | 187388 | ||
Hi Ken Harris. Welcome to the Forum. Have a look at the following verses, and you will see that what Jesus was in fact saying to Peter was that what he Peter said to certain individual persons, would in fact have already been decided in Heaven.. Also as John 20:21-23, bellow shows, it will not in fact be them speaking, but the Holy Spirit, speaking through them, as was in fact the case with Jesus who describes here in verses 21, and 22, just how it was that the Father sent Him. Matt 16:19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind (declare to be improper and unlawful) on earth must be what is already bound in heaven; and whatever you loose (declare lawful) on earth must be what is already loosed in heaven. [Isa. 22:22.] Amplifed Bible Matt 16:19 "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven." NASB Mat 16:19 "And I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed[fn3] in heaven." NKJ Footnote 16:19 Or will have been bound . . . will have been loosed Mat 16:19 and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the heavens, and whatever thou mayest bind upon the earth shall be having been bound in the heavens, and whatever thou mayest loose upon the earth shall be having been loosed in the heavens.' Youngs Literal Translation. John 20:21 So Jesus said to them again, "Peace be with you; as the Father has sent Me, I also send you." John 20:22 And when He had said this, He breathed on them and *said to them, "Receive the Holy Spirit. John 20:23 "If you forgive the sins of any, their sins have been forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they have been retained." May the Lord bless you, and keep you safe. ebrain. |
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39 | What should occur after accepting Christ | Acts 10:38 | ebrain | 187358 | ||
When Jesus came to earth some 2000 years ago, He not only came to offer Himself as a sinless sacrifice to pay for our sins, and thus enable God to forgive as many as will accept this fact. but also to demonstrate by His life just how we humans were, and are intended by our Father God to behave towards He who made us in His own image. By His life, I mean the attitude of (Not My will, but thine be done) that Jesus continually adopted towards His Father, thus enabling the Father who indwelt the Son, see Jhn 14:10 "Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. The Father communicates Himself through the body of the man Jesus to all people with whom He came into contact at that time, and through Scripture now to us. This is the reason why you, if you are a Christian are indwelt by the Holy Spirit, in order that you might allow the other resident within yourself to have right of way in your life, and to do just what He wants to do in and through you. Remember Jesus said, "He who has seen me has seen the Father", Jhn 14:7 "If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him." not that the Father is a human being, Jesus is here referring to conduct and behavior, what He the Father did, and what He said, see Jhn 1:18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,* who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him. Jesus also said, Jhn 15:3 "You are already clean because of the word which I have spoken to you. Jhn 15:4 "Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in Me. Jhn 15:5 "I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me you can do nothing. Note "without Me you can do nothing" Why do you suppose that Paul said Gal 2:20 "I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave Himself for me. Phl 1:21 For to me, to live is Christ, and to die is gain Col 1:27 To them God willed to make known what are the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles: which* is Christ in you, the hope of glory. Gal 4:19 My little children, for whom I labor in birth again until Christ is formed in you, There is only one person in this whole universe who can live the Christian life to perfection,,, that person lives inside you, and that's why Jesus said what He said at, John 5:19. John 5:30, John 11:41b - 42, John 14:7-10. Ask Him in prayer, why He did things this way, and He will tell you as He told me many years ago, "Because it's the only way you can do it". ebrain. |
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40 | E-Security only for true believers? | Matt 7:21 | ebrain | 187325 | ||
Hi Lookn4ward2Heaven. Thank you for your post. You said. "I did not say that Matt 7:21 referred to genuine Christians. I did say, "eternal security is provided for those who are genuine believers." I wholeheartedly agree with you, genuine believers are eternally secure. If you would like me to post a series of Bible verses that teach this, then please ask. ebrain. |
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