Results 21 - 40 of 196
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Lookn4ward2Heavn Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | By What Right Does God Rule Man? | Ps 2:11 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 188302 | ||
PanJam, You said, "There is another reason, and that is His nature. God is pure, holy, sinless, and righteous. He only is Holy. By that fact, He only has the right to both rule and judge us." I agree. That God is good seems to me to be the overarching (over His being the Creator) and fundamental basis for God's divine right to rule. It does not seem to me that being Creator, in and of itself, does not give God a legitimate right to rule man. A father may beget children but if he is abusive, his children should be taken away from him and his right to parenting them be denied. What do you think? |
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22 | By What Right Does God Rule Man? | Ps 2:11 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 188303 | ||
See my note #188302. That God is Creator and powerful, to me, does not seem to be a legitimate and fundamental basis for God's right to rule; that God is good, more than anything else, seems to be what establishes God's the right to rule. Your thoughts? |
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23 | By What Right Does God Rule Man? | Ps 2:11 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 188308 | ||
Hank, My question assumes a Biblical answer will be given. I just asked the question and answered others giving my thoughts on it. See note, #188302. |
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24 | By What Right Does God Rule Man? | Ps 2:11 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 188309 | ||
Sorry for the confusion, John. I meant to say that God, as Creator, in and of itself, does not give God a legitimate right to rule man. I do believe God has a legitimate right to rule based, above all other reasons, upon his character as good. |
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25 | By What Right Does God Rule Man? | Ps 2:11 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 188337 | ||
God was not abusive in giving His Son - something for which he also agreed to do - to pay for our sins in the same way a father is not abusive in letting his son - who volunteered for the armed services - go to war to protect the country. | ||||||
26 | Definition of "Perfect Will of God" | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195081 | ||
How are Christians, according to your understanding of the Bible, to define what is meant by the phrase "the perfect will of God"? | ||||||
27 | Definition of "Perfect Will of God" | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195093 | ||
Doc and Lionheart, With all due respect: (1) I do not see where either posts provide a direct answer to my question. (2) Going down the thread, I do not find a Biblically supported explanation of just what the phrase in question means. I may have missed it somewhere and if so, please be so kind as to direct me. |
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28 | Definition of "Perfect Will of God" | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195096 | ||
BradK, thanks for your answer and the Bible verse. 1. What can one understand to be the apostle Paul's intended meaning by the word "perfect"? For example, is the apostle here affirming that God's will is always accomplished in/through the believer and always exactly in the way God wills it to be accomplished? Is the apostle making a distinction between "good," "acceptable," and "perfect"? Or are these terms merely describing one and the same thing, (i.e. God's will)? 2. Considering the context, is the apostle implying that if one does not follow through with his urging - to (a) "to present your bodies," and (b) "not be conformed to this world" - they may fail to do God's will or do it perfectly? Furthermore, can the apostle's use of the word "perfect" mean or emphasize the quality of the act in relation to God's character as, for example, holy and good, and not necessarily the act as an act? |
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29 | Definition of "Perfect Will of God" | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195097 | ||
Hi Lionheart, Your response didn't seem critical to me. Maybe you can read my response to Brad and add some insight... |
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30 | Decretive Will vs. Perceptive Will? | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195098 | ||
Doc, Regarding the example... 1. Is it actually suggested that it was God's decree - "His eternal purpose, according to His will, whereby He has foreordained" - that the man rob a bank? 2. Would that not be the same thing as saying that God decreed the man to sin, that is, God decreed this man to go against his preceptive, i.e. revealed will? Even further, being an eternal decree, is it being suggested that God never intended for the man to obey a known divine precept? 3. Could not the rape of a child also be used as an example of God's "decretive will"? Can it not also be said that, although God having laid the command "thou shalt not rape children," nevertheless, God never intended for this man to obey it? 4. How can God, if the integrity of His being is to be maintained, will the opposite of what he commands, worse, never intend the obedience demanded in the first place? 5. Furthermore (and this question is the more important, which I would like a response), how does Deut 29:29 demonstrate such a teaching regrading God's will as proposed in your post? |
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31 | Decretive Will vs. Perceptive Will? | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195101 | ||
Hi Doc. 1. Would answering #5 be considered off-limits since it does pertain directly to the understanding of a Biblical passage? 2. If the issue regarding the "divine decretive and preceptive will" is a subject that is off-limits, why, may I ask with no intention of disrespect, was the issue brought up by you in the first place? 3. If discussed in this forum, would it be permissible for you to direct me to is so that I may review the discussion (without any intention, on my part, to post responses to it or bring it up again on this forum)? Thanks... |
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32 | Decretive Will vs. Perceptive Will? | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195123 | ||
Azure, Oops! I sometimes wonder why I wear glasses. Doc, please accept my apologies for the mix-up and, Doc, thanks for your reply, anyway. Searcher, let me be clear, however, that I am not presenting my questions on the basis of Arminianism-Calvinism debate. My questions are based on the posts read and reponses I receive for my questions. |
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33 | Decretive Will vs. Perceptive Will? | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195422 | ||
Hi Doc, Appreciate your response although, being a parroted response (noted with all due respect), it does fail to answer the specifics of my questions. 1. I assume your answer is essentially, “yes”? 2. I cannot see where your response specifically address the question: If, as you suggest in your answer to #1, God decreed that the man would rob the bank, does that mean God also decreed this man to go against his preceptive (i.e. revealed) will? 3. It seems your answer affirms that a child’s rape is God's "decretive will." However, I don’t see where my further questioning is answered by #1, that is, God having decreed the rape of a child and having laid the command, "thou shalt not rape children," nevertheless, never intended for the man who raped the child to obey it? Or, to put simply, did God also decree that a man disobey the divinely revealed will against rape? 4. I don’t see how I am mistaking “determinism” with “sovereignty.” My question has really no bearing on the divine sovereignty. It does question the compatibility of God being true in his dealings with man in light of Him openly commanding and expecting someone to do one thing while simultaneously secretly decreeing and intending he do the opposite. 5. Your answer seems to be that your view of the divine decree is not supported in any way by Deut 29:29, it showing only that “some information is God’s business alone, not man’s”. |
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34 | Decretive Will vs. Perceptive Will? | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195553 | ||
Doc, I don't see how this long response relates to my question. While your comments are off the subject, allow me to respond. My older brother (at the time he wasn't a Christian) gave me good advice many years ago and I have held to it: "If you can't explain it, you don't understand it." I sometimes have the opportunity to tell other believers to not just read the Bible or know it but own it. I tell them, it's not your Bible (with the emphasis on "your") until you, by faith (1) are able to get out of it and understand it for yourself what God is saying to you, and (2) experience the presence of God in the course of living it out." The Bible is not just to be read but also owned. My Bible is my Bible not because I bought it, take time (however short) to read and study it, have an intellectual (however lacking) grasp of it, “a bunch of dead guys” told me what it means, or I memorized and adhere to a particular creed, but because (1) God speaks to me through it and, (2) opportunities are opened to experience God through it. I love books. I love to read. I just finished reading, "Power Through Weakness," by Savage. Now I'm reading, "Following Jesus in a Culture of Fear." At the same time, I'm studying Muller's, "God, Creation, and Providence in the Thought of Jacob Arminius" (that's heavy reading for me!). I'm also studying the "Book of Hebrews" with some commentaries, including Bruce and Lane's (the latter is an awesome read). Sometimes I get into a (bad?) situation where I'm spending more time reading my books rather than the Bible. All that to reiterate, "I love books!" But I'm not going to read my books the way I read the Bible. Creeds may be helpful but it’s not the Bible. "Godly and scholarly divines of the past" may have their value but they are not divinely-inspired instruments of learning in the sense equivalent to those who gave us the Bible. I don't believe what I believe because Calvin or Arminius, the Baptist Creed, Westminster Confession, or the Remonstrant, FF Bruce or William Lane said this or that; I believe what I believe because God speaks to me through the Bible. Other people and books may help clarify certain things in the Bible, creeds may be a useful device to facilitate memory, but they are not determinative of what I believe. JW's often respond to questions by rote as if they have a teleprompter in front of them. As a result, they fail to give answers directly related to the questions. From my point of view, if I just throw up what someone else says, I'm acting no better than those who have joined a cult. You are correct to say, "Nowadays we can garner to ourselves all kinds of teachers who will support our preconceptions, scratching our itching ears" (that you said "we" leaves me to assume you also are susceptible). This may occur when one, rather than giving the Bible its rightful place, lines it up alongside creeds and the teachings of others. You also said, “I've studied the various confessions of the church at the feet of well qualified university and seminary professors. My understanding isn't simply a matter of subjective opinion. It was proven through a variety of academic venues formally validating my comprehension.” Unfortunately: (1) No amount or degree of learning can guarantee freedom from errors; (2) No belief held is absolutely objective; (3) To study the “various confessions” is not the same as studying the Bible. Since you advise, “We can discuss it again after you do some reading,” and my library is filled with books I haven’t yet read, I will refrain from asking you directly any more questions so as not to take up your time. |
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35 | Decretive Will vs. Perceptive Will? | Ps 115:3 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 195554 | ||
Doc, Actually the first line of my post above (#195553) should read: "I don't see how YOUR long response (referring to #195490) relates to my question." I mention this for clarity...just in case... |
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36 | Mans appropriate relation to animals? | Prov 12:12 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 187321 | ||
CDBJ, I don't think Tony necessarily stretches the text. In any case, that the Bible does say that there will be a "new heaven and a new earth" suggests to me that there will be animals. Also, somewhere in the Hebrew text it does read that the lion will lie down with the lamb (and there seems to be no indication it is figuratively speaking). Admittedly, the Bible does not say that we will specifically live with the same animals we owned on earth in heaven; but I don't think God, who is Father, will begrudge one that wish (James 1:5). |
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37 | "Saved" but not saved? | Matt 7:21 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 186363 | ||
Can a person show every indication of being saved without being genuinely saved? | ||||||
38 | Can one be deceived that he is saved? | Matt 7:21 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 186419 | ||
Regarding Matt 7:21-23 - Doesn't it seem as if their self-deception is obvious and observable since, although they claim allegiance to Christ as Lord, they are practicing lawlessness? 1 John 2:19 - Their self-deception is made observable since they have left the fellowship of the Church; their allegiance to Christ is obviously false because they have separated themselves from the body of believers. Again, James 2:14 seems to address those whose allegiance is false because they do not demonstrate faith in Christ. Correct me if I am wrong, but it seems as if the verses above note obvious and observable differences between those whose allegiance to Christ is true and those who are false. My question arises on the premise that one shows every indication of being saved but is in reality not saved. In other words, is it possible that one, although showing outward indications that they are saved - for example, profess faith in Christ, attend fellowship, and do what is right - actually be lost? |
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39 | What are the "evidences for salvation"? | Matt 7:21 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 186462 | ||
Doc, 1. What are the "evidences of our salvation"? 2. How do these "evidences" give assurance of my future salvation? 2. Can someone error in perceiving these "evidences" as indications of genuine salvation when, in fact, they are not saved? 3. How can one who presently receives the Word with joy know for sure that when trials come by their way in the future, they will not fall away? |
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40 | Christianity vs Churchianity? | Matt 7:21 | Lookn4ward2Heavn | 186463 | ||
CDBJ, But how does one know that they are not practicing "true Christianity" rather than "Churchanity", that is, that there salvation is genuine? |
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