Results 21 - 40 of 49
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Results from: Notes Author: stokeyhk Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55950 | ||
For example? Stokey. |
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22 | Salvation outside of the church | Rom 10:17 | stokeyhk | 50354 | ||
See John 15:1-8. Note, particularly, verse 5 which says: "apart from [Jesus] you can do nothing at all." So we have to be part of Jesus' body or congregation. (Ephesians 3:10; 4:4-16) | ||||||
23 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 55695 | ||
What are you talking about, Steve? John 10:29: "My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all." You forgot to mention verses 34-36: "I am the Son of God"! What about John 17:20-22? "They may be one just as We are one." Stokey. |
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24 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 55732 | ||
Steve, John 5:26 says: "[The Father] has granted the Son to have life in himself." Also, John 17:2 says: "[The Father] granted him [God's Son] authority over all people that he might give eternal life." (1 John 5:11) So God can delegate authority to give eternal life to others, and has done so to his firstborn Son. Stokey. |
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25 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 55892 | ||
Isn't it a sweeping statement to say, 'When was this authority granted? Answer: In eternity"? John 17:2 says: "You granted him authority over all people." If he'd had this authority "in eternity," would he need to be "granted" it? "To us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he WILL BE called ["his (composite) name shall be called," KJV] Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, EVERLASTING FATHER, Prince of Peace." "The very zeal of Jehovah of armies will do this." (Isaiah 9:6, 7) After Jesus had been born as a "child" and after he had received "his government." (1 Corinthians 15:23, 50) Stokey |
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26 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 55952 | ||
I've covered Isaiah 6:1 and John 12:41 already, but, to reiterate, see Isaiah 6:8: "Who will go for US?" You didn't read Isaiah 9:6, then? Stokey. |
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27 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 56104 | ||
How ya doing, Steve. You seem to be the only one who wants to talk to me now! You know, those modern translations that you use'll be the death of you. What is ESV anyway? 1) As you may know, the Greek word rendered worship is "proskyneo." Strong says this word means: "to fawn or crouch to, i.e. (lit. or fig.) prostrate oneself in homage (do reverence to, adore)." a) "Jesus said to him: 'Go away, Satan! For it is written, "It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service."'" b) Jesus said: "The true worshipers will worship the Father with spirit and truth, for, indeed, the Father is looking for suchlike ones to worship him." From these two verses, we can see that Jesus taught us to render exclusive worship to his Father. "Proskyneo" is rendered as "worship," but not exclusively so. For example: the NIV renders it "fall down" in Revelation 3:9, and "fell on his knees before him" in Matthew 18:26. Why? Context! Whereas the KJV renders them as "worship" and "worshipped." What about in the case of Jesus? Should it be rendered as "worship" or as "fall down"? Consider Mark 15:19. Here the KJV renders it as "worshipped" regarding what the soldiers did to Jesus. However, the NIV renders it as "falling on their knees, they paid homage to him." Why? Context again! They clearly did not view Jesus as God or as a deity. As "bow before" (AT), 'pay homage' (NEB) and 'do obeisence' (NWT) are in harmony with the Greek, with Jesus' comments at Matthew 4:10 and John 4:23, and the angels comments at Revelation 22:9, these individuals who 'performed proskyneo' to Jesus were doing so because they recognized Jesus as God's representative and as "the Son of God." (Matthew 14:32, 33) c) It was angels, not humans, who, as the New English Bible says, 'paid homage' to Jesus in Hebrews 1:6. 2) As you rightly quoted, Isaiah said he heard Jehovah speak these words: "Whom shall I [Jehovah] send, and who will go for us [Jehovah and Jesus, John 12:39-41]?" So Isaiah heard Jehovah say, "us." Isaiah also "got to see [in vision, Exodus 33:20] Jehovah." Was John teaching that the Jehovah Isaiah saw was in fact the prehuman Jesus? Consider two things: a) John 12:38 calls Jesus "the arm of Jehovah." b) John 12:40 applies Isaiah 6:10 to Jesus showing that he was sent by Jehovah to do a preaching work. (Isaiah 61:1; Luke 4:16-21) The "glory" that Isaiah saw was, as John 1:14 says, "the glory as of the only begotten of the Father." (Genesis 1:26; Proverbs 8:30, 31) 3) Rather than Jesus being granted "life in himself" "from eternity," Isaiah 9:6 says Jesus would be called "Everlasting Father [life-giver] after he 'was born as a child' and glorified. (John 5:26, 27; 17:2) Thus being granted to have "life in himself" to eternity based on his 'ransom as the Son of man.' (Matthew 20:28) 4) Revelation 21:2 says: "I saw the Holy City, the New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God." This, then, is focusing on the earth and "men." (Verse 3) 5) Jesus said the Queen of the South "came from the ends of the earth to listen to Solomon's wisdom." Seems like Jesus didn't view him as losing sight of anything. The apostles' quotations from the Proverbs show this, too. The expression "under the sun" refers to a life excluding God's purpose which is indeed "meaningless." (Ecclesiastes 1:2, 3) Solomon was focusing on planet earth, whereas Peter was focusing on "ungodly men." (2 Peter 3:5-7, 10, 12, 13) Stokey |
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28 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 56229 | ||
Hello, Hank. Of course "modern" does not mean "all" translations. It means modern ones. As you may know, Jehovah's Witnesses have only been using the New World Translation of the Greek Scriptures since 1950, and the complete one since 1961. So much of the understanding was gained from other older translations. Further, Jehovah's Witnesses have the rights to print the KJV, the ASV and Byington's Bible. 1) Notice this comment from the preface of the Living Bible: "Whenever the author's exact words are not translated from the original languages, there is a possibility that the translator, however honest, may be giving the English reader something that the original writer did not mean to say." 2) The American Standard Version of 1901 used the name Jehovah almost 7,000 times. However, its successor, the Revised Standard Version of 1952 completely removed it. Why? They cited Jewish tradition. (Matthew 15:6) However, Psalm 83:18 clearly reveals God's will: "That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the Most High over all the earth." (Psalm 83:18; Matthew 6:9; John 12:28; 17:26, KJV) 3) Reasoning from the Scriptures, published by Jehovah's Witnesses, uses 28 different Bible translations. If you have been reading my posts, you'll see that I rarely used the New World Translation. Stokey. |
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29 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 56232 | ||
How does "From Myself I do nothing," "My Father taught me" and "submissive" equate with "equal in position"? (John 20:17) Stokey |
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30 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 56241 | ||
Hi, Ray. I already believe that "God is true and that Jesus and the Father are" one. (John 10:30, 36; 17:20-22) Also, as you quote, I believe that "the head of the Christ is God" and Jesus "will be subjected" to God. (1 Corinthians 11:3; 15:27) But do you believe genuine Christians should 'make known or confess God's name,' Jehovah? (Psalm 83:18; John 17:26, KJV; Hebrews 13:15, NIV) Has the NKJV removed God's name from Psalm 83:18? Stokey |
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31 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 56242 | ||
To Tim Moran and Hank: Yes, Hank, the Living Bible is "a loose paraphrase." I didn't choose it as an example of a modern translation. Rather to show that a translator can say something that the original writer "did not mean to say." How do you feel about the New English Bible that uses "Jehovah" six times and renders John 1:1 this way: "What God was, the Word was"? Or the New Testament in an Improved Version of 1808, which renders John 1:1 as: "the Word was a god." (See John 6:70; 9:17; Acts 28:6) Philip B. Harner said in the Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87, "Perhaps the clause could be translated, 'the Word had the same nature as God.'" That is, Jesus has "divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4, KJV) That the Living Bible "does better than the New World Translation" is just your opinion. However, Edgar J. Goodspeed said: "It exhibits a vast array of sound serious learning, as I can testify." The Differentiator of April 1952, pp.52-7 said: "The translation is evidently the work of skilled and clever scholars." Tim, The Andover Newton Quarterly said: "The New Testament translation was made by a committee whose membership has never been revealed-a committee that possessed an unusual competence in Greek." The committee asked to remain anonymous, since they were not seeking prominence. (John 5:41) Stokey |
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32 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55251 | ||
That's what the Bible indicates. Matthew 24:14, 36-44 shows why we wait. Stokey. |
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33 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55514 | ||
Do you believe that Jesus' invisible return was about 1914? Or, Do you disbelieve it because Jehovah's Witnesses say this? As one of Jehovah's Witnesses, I would like you to tell me how you understand Acts 15:28, 29 which says: "It seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us not to burden you with anything beyond the following requirements: You are to abstain from . . . blood . . . and from sexual immorality." (NIV) Stokey. |
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34 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55531 | ||
Like you said, only Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus' return was in 1914. There are some religious groups who have an afinity for 1914, but have different understandings. Not only Jehovah's Witnesses recognized 1914 as the end of "the times of the Gentiles" as mentioned in Luke 21:24, KJV. There were a number of clergymen in the 19th century who did so, and others. As you may know, we have taught this since 1876. Many people believe we're living in the "last days." (2 Timothy 3:1-5) World events clearly show this. It all depends on whether we're willing to consider a different viewpoint. So, I believe Jesus' invisible return was in 1914 because it has "Scriptural support." I agree with their explanation, too. Further, Jehovah's Witnesses didn't have the New World Translation before 1950. You have to admire their worldwide peace and unity, though, don't you? Will you answer my question regarding Acts 15:28, 29? Stokey. |
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35 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55617 | ||
Its interesting that the Amplified Bible inserts "tasting" into the verse. TEV inserts "eat." Jehovah's Witnesses "take it literally," too. You're right, "abstain from blood means abstain from blood." So, do you admire this aspect of our doctrine? Naturally to believe it intellectually is one thing, but to do it is quite another! Acts 5:29, 32 says: "'We must obey God as ruler rather than men." 'God gives his holy spirit to those obeying him as ruler.' James 1:22 says: "Do not merely listen to the word, and so deceive yourselves. Do what it says." Stokey. |
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36 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55621 | ||
I didn't say the Watchtower has taught this since 1876. The first Watchtower was issued July, 1879. I said: "Jehovah's Witnesses have recognized 1914 as the end of 'the times of the Gentiles' since 1876." This was in an article printed in the October 1876 issue of the Bible Examiner. Maybe I should have said the Bible Students, who adopted the name Jehovah's Witnesses in 1931, have taught this. Yes, Jehovah's Witnesses were mistaken in their expectations about 1914, 1925 and 1975. The Bible says: "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father." (Mark 13:32) What's worse is when a person realizes his mistakes, but refuses to correct them! I don't think the organization of Jehovah's Witnesses has ever claimed to be "infallible." (Acts 1:6, 7; Luke 19:11; Daniel 12:8; 1 Corinthians 13:12) Stokey. |
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37 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55708 | ||
Of course time corrects us! The Bible says that's how we learn! (See Proverbs 11:3; Luke 21:29-31) Did the Watchtower Society tell them to sell everything? So, Are you saying we shouldn't preach "this gospel of the kingdom"? (Matthew 24:14) Are you saying we shouldn't proclaim "the day of vengeance"? (Isaiah 61:2) The Society doesn't claim to be an "infallible" interpreter of Scripture. "Lied to its followers time and time again" is quite an accusation. You're accusing them of being serial liars and providing no examples. Shame on you! Were you ever baptized as one of Jehovah's Witnesses? Stokey |
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38 | Who is the "Beast" in Revalation? | Revelation | stokeyhk | 51712 | ||
There are three beasts mentioned in Revelation. The one mentioned in chapter 17 is the United Nations Organization. This beast "once was [1920], and now is not [1939], and yet will come [1945], is an eighth king. He belongs to the seven [Egypt, Assyria, Babylon, Persia, Greece, Rome, Anglo-American world empires]." (Revelation 17:8, 11, 12, 13) Compare this with Revelation 13:14, 15. All these beasts refer to global political powers under the Devil's control. (See Revelation 13:1, 2, 7, 12; Daniel 7:2-8, 23; 1 John 5:19; Luke 4:5, 6) They are thrown into the "lake of fire." "The lake of fire is the second death." (Revelation 20:10, 14) Stokeyhk. |
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39 | "Two witnesses." When? Who? | Rev 11:3 | stokeyhk | 53396 | ||
How do you know that the tribulation is 7 years long? How do you know these days have not come yet? Didn't Jesus say that John the Baptist was Elijah returned? (Matthew 17:11-13; Luke 1:17) If Moses and Elijah are resurrected and then die again, how would their resurrection be a 'better one'? (Hebrews 11:23-28, 32, 35; Revelation 11:4-6) Would it be possible for the two witnesses to be four persons-Moses, Elijah, and the two anointed ones of Zechariah 4:13? Or, could we say that the two witnesses, as well as their death and resurrection, are symbolic? (Ezekiel 37:1-14; Revelation 1:1) Does the context of Revelation 12:6 and 13:5 warrant linking those two time periods? If the wild beast is destroyed at Armageddon, wouldn't the prophesying have to take place during the "last days"? (Revelation 16:13-16; 19:19-21) Rock on, Tommy. |
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40 | "Two witnesses." When? Who? | Rev 11:3 | stokeyhk | 54117 | ||
How are you, prayon? I'd like to ask you: What is this "tribulation," and for whom is it? First notice Matthew 11:7-14. Jesus said John the Baptist was "more than a prophet." He said John fulfilled Malachi 3:1 as being God's "messenger." He then said in verse 11 that neither Moses, Elijah or any other prophet was "greater than John the Baptist." However, John the baptist said he was not part of Christ's bride, but only a friend. (John 3:27-30) That's why "he who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than" John. (Matthew 11:11) Then the interesting point: "All the prophets and the Law prophesied until John." (Hebrews 1:1, 2) Then, most telling, Jesus says: "If you want to accept it, [John] is the Elijah who was to come." (Malachi 4:5) Clearly, not a resurrection! So why would it be in Revelation? Why do you say the two witnesses are not symbolic? Comparing Revelation 11:3, 7, 10 with 10:11; 12:17; 13:5-7, 10 and 14:9-12, it seems clear that the two witnesses are the remaining ones of Jesus' body, the 144,000! (See Galatians 3:16, 26-29) If they are God's witnesses, wouldn't that make them Jehovah's Witnesses? Stokeyhk. |
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